Subject: Idiom? |
Bible Note: Jim, Your study has not produced sufficient evidence for you to see that when the words were spoken, it was NOT an idiom because it was well understood at the time, and I believe there was scriptural evidence provided to support that it was, as well as some reliable commentary. So clearly there is some other means that makes it difficult for you to understand what the meaning is. It would seem, simply, that was the manner of speaking in that day. Since neither you nor I were actually there, we must also rely on the wisdom of those who have proven reliable and devoted their lives to helping us better understand God’s words and the times in which they were spoken. Words and phrases and manners of speaking do change over time and the words spoken can have a sure meaning to the present audience and us, in our time and culture, we may have difficulty understanding them. That doesn’t by definition make it an idiom, just simply from another time and more difficult to comprehend without proper instruction. Now, you claim this to be an idiom “outside of scripture”, that someone at sometime decided it was an idiom. That is just wrong brother, I don’t know how else to explain it. It’s not an idiom, never was and no matter how strongly you argue it is, will never be. It is Jim that makes the claim it is an idiom, Scripture never does. I’ll stick with the scripture, shouldn’t you? Bottom line seems to be this, rather than arguing this on such shaky ground, maybe you should be in prayer for the proper understanding. Stand in His grace, WOS |