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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is God subject to change? | Bible general Archive 2 | New Creature | 102570 | ||
Dear John; you asked - "Whats wrong with simply accepting what the verse says, which is that the wicked actions ot those responsible for the crucifixion carried out God's plan even though they thought they were doing it for their own evil reasons." My reply is nothing, I also accept what the verse says. However if you believe that God is omniscient, then it follows that He foreknows all things before they happen. Being omniscient and foreknowing all things in my understanding does not mean God fore-ordained the evil actions of men. It only means He foreknew about the wicked deeds of men, and even permitted the evil acts of men, knowing beforehand that His divine plan would in no way be altered by the actions or inactions of men. By giving His created beings the ability to choose to obey or disobey makes man responsible for his choices. To believe God fore-ordained the evil actions would mean God must be responsible for mens wicked deeds. Thats what I believe. Not because of any single verse of Scripture, but because of the entirety of what I read from Scripture. So whats wrong with believing that God created His beings with the ability to choose good or evil? I cannot at this time agree with you that God fore-ordained sin, since God is not the author of sin. In other words if God fore-ordained sin, therby becoming the author of it, then that would mean that God Himself is a sinner, which of course He isn't Blessings friend New Creature |
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2 | Is God subject to change? | Bible general Archive 2 | John Reformed | 102574 | ||
NC, Why then does the apostle say fore-ordained? Words mean things. Ordain means to order by virtue of superior authority; Fore means beforehand. Put them together and they mean that God, beforehand ordered that the evil deeds, which were done by the murderers of Jesus, were by His authority and power. But they did it for for their own wicked reason. They did'nt mean it for the salvation of untold thousands of people. John |
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3 | Is God subject to change? | Bible general Archive 2 | New Creature | 102590 | ||
Dear John All I can say is, that when FOREKNOWLEDGE precedes any FOREORDAINING (such as in Rom. 8:29 and 1 Pet 1:2) then the difficulty of understanding all this disappears, at least to me. The problem is trying to explain it to someone else. I sat here for an hour and tried to think about how I would answer you, and discovered that I doubt that I could give you any satisfactory explanation without writting a book. And I doubt you would care to read any book I could contrive. Just look in Scripture to see how FOREKNOWLEDGE precedes FORE-ORDAINING. P.S. I still disagree with your belief that God fore-ordains sin. Do you truly believe that God is the author of sin? Blessings friend New Creature |
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4 | Is God subject to change? | Bible general Archive 2 | John Reformed | 102659 | ||
New Creature For the last time...God is NOT the author of sin! But He does ordain evil deeds as in the case of Acts 4:28,29. This passage says Acts 4:27 "For truly in this city there were gathered together against Your holy servant Jesus, whom You anointed, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, along with the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel, Acts 4:28 to do whatever Your hand and Your purpose predestined to occur. This is not a difficult passage to understand. Anyone who knows how to read can understand it's meaning. The hard part is getting it to fit a pre-concieved idea that is in opposition to it's clear teaching. So words must be twisted to say something other than what they mean and people who disagree with twisting scripture are accused of heresy! For the last time. when it is said that God pre-destines or to fore-ordains that a thing happens, it means that it happened because He had willed it to happen beforehand. To say that He knew that it was going to happen and thats the reason why He pre-destined it is nonsensical. If you don't see that itis nonsense, then, I must conclude that you are willfully refusing to believe what the passage teaches because it does not fit your conception of God Himself. May God grant you enlightenment. John |
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5 | Is God subject to change? | Bible general Archive 2 | Morant61 | 102665 | ||
Greetings John! How does one ordain something, but not be the author of it? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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6 | Is God subject to change? | Bible general Archive 2 | sadean | 102675 | ||
Hebrews 13:8 Jesus Christ is the same yesterday and today and forever. |
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7 | Is God subject to change? | Bible general Archive 2 | Morant61 | 102697 | ||
Greetings! ? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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