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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is the NWT more reliable than the NASB? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 78239 | ||
Greetings Tsmith! Good morning again my friend! I rushed through and missed one important point in your post. You wrote: "However, the fact remains, as I said earlier, every single time PROTOTOKOS is followed by a genitive it always means the one born first." Yet, in the NT, 'prototkos' is used with the genitive in once instance where it clearly does not refer to one born first. In Col. 1:18, He is described as the 'firstborn from the dead'. Are the dead born? Was Christ the first to rise from the dead? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | Is the NWT more reliable than the NASB? | Bible general Archive 1 | Tsmith | 78242 | ||
My fault for not being specific. I should have been clear of making reference to "of". |
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3 | Is the NWT more reliable than the NASB? | Bible general Archive 1 | Morant61 | 78244 | ||
Greetings Tsmith! You can't get off of the hook quite that easily! :-) Col. 1:18 is still a occasion where 'prototkos' is used with the genitive case. And, it is in the immediate context of the verse in question. So, if it is clearly used as a title in Col. 1:18, why is it a stretch to say that it is also a title in verse 15? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | Is the NWT more reliable than the NASB? | Bible general Archive 1 | Tsmith | 78245 | ||
I would actually argue 1:18 actually, in that it isn't. It is a position, because just as Adam died the day he ate of the tree, no man was truly born from the dead until Jesus because they all died again. Just truly was firstborn from the dead, as in the one born first. |
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