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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | die in your sins | John 8:24 | EdB | 234562 | ||
Andy or Tim I ask that one of you would explain this to me, what makes the “I am” of John 8:24 different than the two "I am" that are found in John 8:23. In fact this passage John 8:12-30 is filled with declarations of Jesus where Jesus uses the term "I am". What makes you focus on the 8:24 “I am”? |
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2 | die in your sins | John 8:24 | Morant61 | 234580 | ||
Greetings Ed! I will need to address some basic grammar in order to answer your question. :-) In John 8:24, Jesus says, "I am" or in Greek 'Ego Eimi'. 'Ego' is a singular, masculine, first person, personal pronoun, or 'I'. 'Eimi' is the Present, Active, Indicative, 1st person, singular of 'to be', or 'I am'. 'Eimi' normally has a predicate to complete that thought of the verb. For instance, I could say, 'I am a pastor'. This is what Jesus does in John 8:23. He says of Himself, "I am from above", and "I am not of this world". These are very normal uses of the verb 'to be'. John 8:24 is different. There is no predicate. Just the fact that there is no predicate does not necessarily mean that Jesus is claiming to be God. It is the contextual evidence that indicates this is the case. 1) No predicate is unusual. Why? 2) John 8:58 definitely adds to the case. 3) The reaction of the Jews is quite surprising. Added all together, many believe that John 8:24 and 8:58 are purposeful allusions to the Divine name of Ex. 3:14. However, as you noted, the Deity of Christ does not stand or fall on this one verse. John 1 makes the argument much more strongly than does John 8. But, John 8 is part of the evidence for His Deity. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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