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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | 1st 400 yrs. "all" agreed on John 3:5 | John 3:5 | arrow1 | 113236 | ||
I would like someone to quote just once during the first 400 years of Christianity anytime, anywhere, anyone referring to John 3:5 as referring to something other than water baptism, if that's the incorrect interpretation, surely one person would have complained about it! | ||||||
2 | 1st 400 yrs. "all" agreed on John 3:5 | John 3:5 | Searcher56 | 113245 | ||
It doesn't matter if all agreed that it was(n't) water baptism during the first 400 years of Christianity ... does that make it true? The rest of Scripture tells us water baptism is not required to be saved. |
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3 | 1st 400 yrs. "all" agreed on John 3:5 | John 3:5 | Jarell | 134437 | ||
then why does peter preach in acts 2:38 to repent and be baptized for the remmission of sins and you shall recieve the gift of the holy ghost | ||||||
4 | 1st 400 yrs. "all" agreed on John 3:5 | John 3:5 | kalos | 134471 | ||
What about Acts 2:38? ____________________ "Since the general teaching of the Bible is, as we have seen, that baptism and other forms of ritual are not necessary for salvation, no individual passage [e.g. Acts 2:38] could teach otherwise." ____________________ Is baptism necessary for salvation? 'No. Let's examine what the Scriptures teach on this issue: 'First, it is quite clear from such passages as Acts 15 and Romans 4 that no external act is necessary for salvation. Salvation is by divine grace through faith alone (Romans 3:22, 24, 25, 26, 28, 30; 4:5; Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:8-9; Philippians 3:9, etc.). 'If baptism were necessary for salvation, we would expect to find it stressed whenever the gospel is presented in Scripture. That is not the case, however. Peter mentioned baptism in his sermon on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:38). However, in his sermon from Solomon's portico in the Temple (Acts 3:12-26), Peter makes no reference to baptism, but links forgiveness of sin to repentance (3:19). If baptism is necessary for the forgiveness of sin, why didn't Peter say so in Acts 3? 'Paul never made baptism any part of his gospel presentations. In 1 Corinthians 15:1-4, Paul gives a concise summary of the gospel message he preached. There is no mention of baptism. In 1 Corinthians 1:17, Paul states that "Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel," thus clearly differentiating the gospel from baptism. That is difficult to understand if baptism is necessary for salvation. If baptism were part of the gospel itself, necessary for salvation, what good would it have done Paul to preach the gospel, but not baptize? No one would have been saved. Paul clearly understood baptism to be separate from the gospel, and hence in no way efficacious for salvation. 'Perhaps the most convincing refutation of the view that baptism is necessary for salvation are those who were saved apart from baptism. We have no record of the apostles' being baptized, yet Jesus pronounced them clean of their sins (John 15:3--note that the Word of God, not baptism, is what cleansed them). The penitent woman (Luke 7:37-50), the paralytic man (Matthew 9:2), and the publican (Luke 18:13-14) also experienced forgiveness of sins apart from baptism. 'The Bible also gives us an example of people who were saved before being baptized. In Acts 10:44-48, Cornelius and those with him were converted through Peter's message. That they were saved before being baptized is evident from their reception of the Holy Spirit (v. 44) and the gifts of the Spirit (v. 46) before their baptism. Indeed, it is the fact that they had received the Holy Spirit (and hence were saved) that led Peter to baptize them (cf. v. 47). 'One of the basic principles of biblical interpretation is the analogia scriptura, the analogy of Scripture. In other words, we must compare Scripture with Scripture in order to understand its full and proper sense. And since the Bible doesn't contradict itself, any interpretation of a specific passage that contradicts the general teaching of the Bible is to be rejected. Since the general teaching of the Bible is, as we have seen, that baptism and other forms of ritual are not necessary for salvation, no individual passage could teach otherwise. Thus we must look for interpretations of those passages that will be in harmony with the general teaching of Scripture. With that in mind, let's look briefly at some passages that appear to teach that baptism is required for salvation. 'In Acts 2:38, Peter appears to link forgiveness of sins to baptism. But there are at least two plausible interpretations of this verse that do not connect forgiveness of sin with baptism. It is possible to translate the Greek preposition eis "because of," or "on the basis of," instead of "for." It is used in that sense in Matthew 3:11; 12:41; and Luke 11:32. It is also possible to take the clause "and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ" as parenthetical. Support for that interpretation comes from that fact that "repent" and "your" are plural, while "be baptized" is singular, thus setting it off from the rest of the sentence. If that interpretation is correct, the verse would read "Repent (and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ) for the forgiveness of your sins." Forgiveness is thus connected with repentance, not baptism, in keeping with the consistent teaching of the New Testament (cf. Luke 24:47; John 3:18; Acts 5:31; 10:43; 13:38; 26:18; Ephesians 5:26). 'Mark 16:16, a verse often quoted to prove baptism is necessary for salvation, is actually a proof of the opposite. Notice that the basis for condemnation in that verse is not the failure to be baptized, but only the failure to believe.' ____________________ (http://www.gty.org/IssuesandAnswers/archive/baptism.htm) |
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5 | 1st 400 yrs. "all" agreed on John 3:5 | John 3:5 | Mommapbs | 134477 | ||
Great response Kalos - note also re: baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, "And there is salvation IN no one else; for there is no other NAME under heaven that has been given among men BY which we MUST BE saved." (Acts 4:12 EPH mine) Interesting to note that the verse does not require water baptism for salvation . . . IMO, water baptism doesn't save, it "slaves!" Those who live their lives upon this error are held captive to the deceptive belief that they must DO something to be approved by God. This is the root of performance Christianity. IMO, it is this false belief that must be repented of and replaced with the Truth of God's Word concerning our salvation IN Jesus Christ! (Eph 2:8-9, Titus 3:5 Eph 1:7) I liked this observation you included: "'Mark 16:16, a verse often quoted to prove baptism is necessary for salvation, is actually a proof of the opposite. Notice that the basis for condemnation in that verse is not the failure to be baptized, but only the failure to believe." Indeed, it is a matter of what we believe. Do we believe in what we do (water baptism) or what Jesus has DONE (the blood) to save us? Blessings, mommapbs |
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6 | 1st 400 yrs. "all" agreed on John 3:5 | John 3:5 | kalos | 134493 | ||
Mommapbs: Thanks for the kind words. Truly, for a person to believe that baptism is necessary for salvation, they would need to pick one "proof text" and ignore what the entire rest of the Bible teaches on the subject. When you challenge them, all they can do is keep repeating their proof text verse. They can't answer the challenges -- all they can do is ignore them. Grace to you, Kalos |
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