Results 1 - 2 of 2
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Knowing the Word | Jer 8:7 | danjg | 233237 | ||
While I agree, I don't see the significance of your statement that not every word God has uttered "became scripture" (graphe), i.e. written down. Mt. 4:4 says that we are to live "on every word that proceeds out of the mouth of God." That has to refer to Scripture because the only words God has given us to live by are contained in Scripture, ergo, Sola Scriptura! Are you trying to make a distinction between the words of God the Father and Jesus and that the Father's are more important? Is there a significance between "word (rhema) of God" in Luke 2:2 and "word (logos)of God" in Luke 5:1? |
||||||
2 | Knowing the Word | Jer 8:7 | meta | 233248 | ||
Mathew actually does not say we are to anything. It says man "does not live by bread alone" It does not say we "are to” it says "we do". You may not think that this is significant either but we are to let sola scriptura be our guide and not your or my preferences. We cannot live without drawing conclusions from scripture. You are drawing a conclusion when you say that "every word that proceeds out of the mouth of God" must refer to scripture. You then state the reason for this as being "because the only words God has given us to live by are contained in Scripture" that very reason is a violation of sola scripture. The scriptures prove this to be wrong in fact because it was Jesus who spoke and He spoke in present tense to a specific group of people. The scriptures as we know them were not in existence at that time. If He were refering to the old testament scriptures he would have used the word scripture (graphe) as He always did unless he was referring to something different. Something He thought important enough to differentiate but you do not see any reason for such differentiation. I believe that is because you place great importance on scripture which is highly commendable. Reluctance to differentiate between these three words is more due to the subjective nature of interpretation than an adherence to accuracy. I have reasons to differentiate. You do not. In Luke 3:2 the (rhema) word that came to John in the wilderness is certainly different than the word that Jesus was sharing with the people in Luke 5. Even If you or I today do not see all of the difference we both see more than we used to. Your point is not completely lost on me though. Jesus did not speak Greek any way but Aramean so the word that he delivered to us has already been changed. However I believe in the canon and love the scriptures that we have. I do hold scripture in a very high regard. God speaks to me through it. It is not the only way He speaks to me. (Even Sola Scripture does not insist on that). It is however the test for everything I believe He is saying. That is what Sola Scripture does insist on. Thanks for your patience with me God bless you Meta |
||||||