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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Hebrews 6:6 explained | Hebrews | The Berean | 41830 | ||
This is a challenging question. Many folks refer to it as a way to lose your salvation. But that cannot be..if so then we have a contradiction in scripture. Read Luke 15:11-32. This is about the prodigal son who returns home to his father. As an illustration to us all Jesus allows for our repentance by the remission of his blood for our sins. However some of us can 'act' saved but not really know him. So thus since salvation wasn't apparent, then Hebrews 6:6 could apply. Look at the scripture further and its writing...it says 'tasted' of the heavenly gift and have been made partakers of the Holy Spirit. As an anology how many times have you tasted something knowing that it was good for you, yet you spit it out without consuming it? Verse 7 says god provides the rain yet good plants and thorns grow as well. They all received the same water..yet our reception of it was different. I suggest you read the entire book of Hebrews! It is one of the most excellent books in the bible in my opinion. | ||||||
2 | Hebrews 6:6 explained | Hebrews | Morant61 | 41843 | ||
Greetings Berean! I love your name! :-) I would take a different approach on the meaning of "taste" my friend. The word (Gr: geuomai) is used 15 times in the New Testament. For the most part, it's uses don't seem to indicate a meaning of "try", but to fully experience something. This is the case especially in Hebrews, where it is used 3 times. 1) Heb. 2:9 says, " But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone." 2) The other two occurances are in Heb. 6:4 and 6:5. Heb. 6:4 and 6:5 are the ones in debate, but Heb. 2:9 gives a good indication of what the author of Hebrews means when he used the word 'taste'. In this case, Christ fully experienced death. In fact, 'taste' is used many times in reference to experiencing death (Mt. 16:28, Mk. 9:1, Lk. 9:27, Jn. 8:52). All of these are strong indicators that 'to taste' something is to fully experience it. Along this line of thought the word is also used of our experience of Christ in 1 Peter 2:3, where Christians are told to grow in their salvation now that they have 'tasted' that the Lord is good. It is used several times of eating a meal. The only verse I could find where the meaning 'to try' or 'to sample' would be legitimate would be in Mt. 27:34, where Jesus 'tasted' the wine, but refused to drink it. This word study (at least to me) indicates that Heb. 6:4 and 6:5 refer to people who had fully experienced salvation. There are also several problems with identifying these people as unbelievers. 1) Note the last phrase of verse 4. These people were described as those who were partakers of the Holy Spirit. I have never yet heard how a unbeliever could be a sharer in the Holy Spirit. 2) Verse 6 refers to the impossibility of bring them 'back' to repentance. Thus, they must have repented before! 3) They are said in verse 6 to be 'crucifying Christ again'. It is difficult to see how an unbelievers remaining an unbeliever would result in Christ be crucified again. I fully agree with you my friend that Hebrews is an excellent book! By the way, you made an interesting point about Luke 15:11-32. I don't believe they are contradictory at all. I you would like to read why, search for a post made by me (Morant61) using the search words 'sir' and 'renew'. This will produce only one result, which is a response I made to Sir Pent about this issue on 12/4/01. Welcome to the forum and I hope that we can interact more in the future my new friend! :-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Hebrews 6:6 explained | Hebrews | John Reformed | 41921 | ||
Hello Tim, I read your post to Sir Pent on He 6:6. It was well reasoned, but left the door open for the loss of salvation for the impenitent believers. What would happen to one such as this who died before repenting? As I responded to Berean, the best sermon I have ever read on He 6:6 was by C.H. Spurgeon. You will find it at www.spurgeon.org and the titleis "Final Perserverance". I believe you will enjoy it immensely! Godd Bless John |
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4 | Hebrews 6:6 explained | Hebrews | Morant61 | 41962 | ||
Greetings John! I'll definitely check out the site. I have a lot of respect for Mr. Spurgeon, though I don't always agree with him! :-) In fact, I probably have that sermon somewhere in my files. I'm heading out to work, but I would like to respond quickly to your point about impenitent believers. As you know, I come from an Arminian perspective, but I don't hold to the view that one can 'lose' their salvation. 'Losing' to me implies an element of accident. I do believe that a believer can willfully 'reject' their salvation. The difference being that I don't see 'rejection' as being composed of one or more acts of sin, which if not repented of led one to damnation. Rather, 'rejection' means a fully conscience decision to reject Christ - with a full awareness of all that this means. I don't see very many believers ever doing this. This is what I think the participles of Heb. 6:4-6 refer to - someone who knew better rejecting the only means of salvation. Thus, I don't believe that a believer ever has to be concerned about 'losing' their salvation - only about rejecting Christ. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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