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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | God's people's land? | 2 Chr 7:14 | Lionstrong | 17346 | ||
Dear Mr. Leabeater, You are correct, the question does expose my objection. After one hears the verse quoted a million times by Christian Americans, one finally begins to think about it. But my objection is not based on a view that the laws and principles of OT are irrelevant. All Scripture is profitable. My objection is based on the fact that God’s people (the church) are dispersed among many nations, many lands, of the world. In the OT we occupied one only. So, no doubt the verse has application today, but how, since we don’t occupy just one land? Which land is ours such that God may heal it? Incidentally, not being a dispensationalist, I believe the OT people of God were the church. And welcome to the Study Bible Forum. Peace, Lionstrong |
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2 | God's people's land? | 2 Chr 7:14 | leabeater | 17367 | ||
My hermaneutic: follow a literal (when possible), contextual and historical interpretation of a passage. If the "rules" of language are followed, and we entertain no bias, we can consistently claim nearly any promise given to God's people in the Old Testament as applicable to His people at any time in history. To object that "land" has a highly specified, contextualized meaning whenever it was used in the Old Testament is difficult to maintain consistently and logically. If the "rain" and "pestilence" of verse 13 can be viewed as precipitation and disease effecting any of God's people then it follows that "land" can apply to that of any of God's people as well. Yes, land was specific to God's national covenants with Israel. Specific areas of land. It's borders were given in great detail (e.g. Joshua 13ff). But here we have little contextual foothold for such a limited view of the word. It might be objected that a literal temple is in view in this passage. While true it would then follow, were we to maintain this narrow semantic approach, that we need to pray in the temple precincts (v. 15) in order that our prayers be heard. Such a view becomes untenable in view of John 4:20ff. And thank-you, Lionstrong, for welcoming me aboard. John |
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3 | God's people's land? | 2 Chr 7:14 | Lionstrong | 17411 | ||
So, then, John, Since the church is worldwide, are you suggesting that an application is that the prayer be made by the universal church for healing of all lands worldwide? Peace, Lionstrong |
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4 | God's people's land? | 2 Chr 7:14 | leabeater | 17449 | ||
Correct. That is one application. Another might be more narrow however. Contextually the Lord was speaking primarily about Palestine. Solomon would have understood Israel as the primary application. That narrows it a bit. But we could also speak of the "land" of Ethiopia (Gen. 2:11), the "land" of Gilead (Josh. 22:13), the "land" of Egypt (1Ki. 9:9), etc. The Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament allows for a much higher degree of specificity such as "a piece of ground (2Ki. 8:5)." Context determines meaning. The promise given in this passage is, in my view, quite broad and therefore the meanings of the words allow for a number of applications. Further, the New Testament echoes the spirit of what is being promised here. "The effective prayer of a righteous man can accomplish much. Elijah was a man with a nature like ours, and he prayed earnestly that it would not rain...(Jam. 5:15-16)." Drawing from an Old Testament example of prayer James makes a New Testament application. This kind of hermaneutical example is instructive of what our methodology should be as well. Hope this clarifies the position I'm taking. John |
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5 | God's people's land? | 2 Chr 7:14 | Searcher56 | 17450 | ||
John, Verse 13 ... has there been no rain? Verse 14 ... do the Christians have a land? Verse 15 ... are we in Jerusalem or the Temple? Verse 16 ... has God consentrated a place other than Israel? Do not take verse 14 and not include the whole context. Steve |
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