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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | translate OT "with respect to the NT" | Bible general Archive 2 | EdB | 111892 | ||
Kalos Aside from what the translators of the Net Bible feel or believe, Matthew when he wrote Matthew 1:23 and being a Hebrew must of understood Isaiah 7:14 to mean a virgin when he quoted it or else we have to assume he took literary liberties. I would think such liberties would have been cited by first century Christian Jews that had access to Matthews book. EdB |
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2 | translate OT "with respect to the NT" | Bible general Archive 2 | kalos | 111900 | ||
Also, please note that neither the question nor my answer was primarily about Isaiah 7:14. My answer was about the principles of interpretation of the translators of the NET Bible. Isaiah 7:14 is merely an example. The note is not about which translation of that verse is the right one. What I quoted does not assert that the NET Bible translation philosophy (approach) is the One Right Way. It acknowledges that different translators have different goals and methods in their work. The NET translators are merely explaining their approach and the reason for it. This relates directly to the original question asked by Dalcent. Grace to you, my friend, kalos |
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3 | translate OT "with respect to the NT" | Bible general Archive 2 | EdB | 111903 | ||
Kalos I understand that and I'm not challenging you in any way. What I'm challenging is the example the NET Bible gave in this quote. To me they unintentionally proved they incorrectly interpreted passages. In an effort to insure Testament purity they did not let one testament effect their translation of the other. They said Isaiah could be taken either way they then discounted the NT and choose using young girl. However Matthew proves (to me without a doubt) that the Jews of the time understood this word to be virgin. EdB |
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