Results 1 - 4 of 4
|
|
|||||
Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Women and hair | 1 Cor 11:5 | Taleb | 79221 | ||
The Book Man, you are right. We CAN’T discount Scripture. Do you know what an idiom is? If 1 Cor 14:35 isn’t an idiom, than are we to believe 1 Peter 3:3-4 isn’t one either? If that is the case, than woman are to stay naked – right? If 1 Cor 14:35 is an idiom, than that changes everything you just stated, doesn’t it? Otherwise, it sure can be confusing whether we are to obey the Old and wear gold as Solomon, David, Joseph, or obey 1 Tim 2:9 where pearls are listed as a no-no. If pearls are a no-no, why did Jesus express their value? “Don’t cast your pearls before swine.” The same Scripture that we can't discount has numerous "idioms" through-out. :) Respectfully, Taleb |
||||||
2 | Women and hair | 1 Cor 11:5 | The-BookMan | 79253 | ||
Dear Taleb, May the God of all graces guide my answer to your question. No, I do not believe the use of "shame" in 1Co 14:35 is an idiom... in fact, it seems axiomatic to me. 1Pe 3:3 does not appear to be an idiom either, but rather a plain admonition that a woman is not to ornament or decorate (Gk:"kosmos" trans. "adorning" and from where we get our word "cosmetics") herself with clothes which only attract attention to self. It says that she should avoid anything that detracts from godliness, even apparel. Your reference to 1Ti 2:9 is quite appropriate in that it states that a sister should not adorn ("kosmeo": ornament or decorate) herself in that which is self-promoting. In fact, her adornment should be with "good works," and a meek and quiet spirit. Obviously, a woman cannot physically put on good works in the morning, so the context demands that this speak to more than apparel. Would you agree? My intent on my original answer was not to cause a debate on an already-contested issue, but to simply and humbly offer an answer to the person's question about this difficult passage. If we begin determining within ourselves that this passage is idiomatic, this passage is cultural, then that is to say that the word is NOT quick and powerful... it needs to be discerned which is applicable and which is not. This does not appear to be "rightly dividing the word of truth." The same Spirit that is in you and me desires that we all come to the knowledge of the truth, therefore, if we diligently seek Him, He shall have us agreed. I continue on the road of searching these things out, therefore, if I am wrong, I pray that God will use any means to correct my path. My apologies if you were bothered or upset by my answer in the previous message. A brother by His grace alone... (Rom. 14:1) |
||||||
3 | Women and hair | 1 Cor 11:5 | Taleb | 79293 | ||
The Book Man, so we are to take 1 Cor 14:35 about not speaking, to be silent - literally? Are the woman allowed to nod their acknowledgement, seeing they are not allowed to”speak”? Can they talk outside on the steps, or is that also forbidden, seeing Paul also mentioned about them “asking their husbands AT HOME? If you notice the ‘asking their husbands at home’ that should reveal the reason for this particular problem. Otherwise, is Paul saying the wife has TO BE AT HOME to ask her husband ANYTHING? Can you see where this is going? One “law” leads to another. But taking into consideration that Paul was ONLY writing to THAT church about a particular problem is evident. To demonstrate my point, I'll use your reference to 1 Cor 1:2. You wrote: “Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord. The epistle is not just addressed to the Corinthians, but to "all (who)... call upon the name of Jesus..." That includes you and me.” End quote. Did you notice the phrase “which IS AT Corinth”? Did you notice it doesn’t mention anyone else? Paul wasn’t writing that Epistle with 2,000 years later on his mind. He wrote his particular epistles according to the particular needs at a particular time to a particular people. Take, for example, 2 Cor. 1 (his third letter to them). “…unto the church of God which is IN CORINTH, WITH all the saints which are IN ALL Achaia.” That was the SMALL region of Greece, in which Corinth was located. Had Paul meant “the Christian church at large”, why didn’t he say so? Romans 14:22 Respectfully, Taleb |
||||||
4 | Women and hair | 1 Cor 11:5 | Searcher56 | 79294 | ||
Taleb ... we are to take 1 Cor 14:35 literally ... for the churches then and today. Otherwise we cannot take any of the Bible addressed to a group or a person. Ignore me if you wish ... but, do not ignore the Bible. Have I proven you wrong on Matthew 24? Verse 14? Searcher |
||||||