Subject: Jesus name of the Father, Son and H/Ghos |
Bible Note: As for Isaiah 45:5, or any other Scripture verse.. "Does John 10:30 teach that Jesus and the Father are the same person?" "No. In John 10:30 Jesus affirmed, "I and the Father are one" (John 10:30). This verse does not mean that Jesus and the Father are one and the same person. We know this to be true because in the phrase, "I and the Father are one," a first person plural-"we are" (Greek: esmen)- is used. The verse literally reads from the Greek, "I and the Father we are one." If Jesus intended to say that He and the Father were one person, He certainly would not have used the first person plural, which clearly implies two persons." "Moreover, the Greek word for "one" (hen) in this verse refers not to personal unity (that is, the idea that the Father and Son are one person) but to unity of essence or nature (that is, that the Father and Son have the same divine nature). This is evident in the fact that the form of the word in the Greek is neuter, not masculine. Further, the verses that immediately precede and follow John 10:30 distinguish Jesus from the Father (John 10:25,29,36,38)." Isaiah 45:5 is no different. Isaiah is affirming that there is only one God. I agree with you. The Trinity does not teach that there are multiple gods. But you have already admitted that there was communication from and between God the Father and Jesus, so Isaiah 45:5 is another verse that strongly affirms the doctrine of the Trinity. Blessings to you, Makarios [Quoted portion taken from "The Complete Book of Bible Answers" by Ron Rhodes, 1997, Harvest House Publishers, pgs. 127-128] |