Subject: Does anyone have a good way to explain t |
Bible Note: Good Morning Truthfinder I have the info. you requested. 'All the Divine Names and Titles in the Bible', by Herbert Lockyer. Published by Zondervan Publishing House Grand Rapids, Michigan. Pg. 5, under, 'The Names and Titles of God the Father', par. 3, "In the beginning God-Gen. 1:1-as well as in the other references, the name is in the plural, and is a foregleam of the trinity acting in Unity. Ex. 20:11; Col. 1:16; and Job 26:13. God 'plural' said let us make man in our image. Gen. 1:26. Just outta curiosity, who was God talking to when He said, "let US make man in our image"?? Also, you might want to try looking at The Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament, Vol. 1, by Moody Press. It says this, "...a better reason can be seen in Scripture itself where , in the very first chapter of Gen, the necessity of a term conveying both the unity of the one God and yet allowing for a plurality of persons is found. It goes on futher to say this, "The New Testament does not teach one God who acted in three modes, modalism, but one divine being who exists in three persons who are co-equal and co-eternal.The main point is that the Bible clearly declares one God in three persons all of whom are God. Note what Paul said about Jesus, and remember, this was not easy for him, as he was a Hebrew of Hebrews, a Pharisee. He wrote of Jesus, "looking for the blessed hope ad the appearing of the golry of our great God AND Savior, Christ Jesus." |