Subject: LEFT BEHIND? |
Bible Note: Greetings John! Allow me to touch upon both passages! 1) 1 Cor. 2:14: I think this is a good example of where you are hearing something that the other camp is not actually saying. Arminians do not believe that regeneration depends upon the will of man. Arminians believe that atonement was made for all men on the cross. Thus, it is a finished act. The only role that man's will has to play in salvation is whether or not to accept or reject the gift of salvation. I realize we will probably never see this passage the same, I just wanted to point out that it does not say that those who do not have the Spirit of God can never have the Spirit of God. It only says that those who do not have the Spirit cannot understand God's wisdom. The Corinthians were in the same position prior to their reception of the Holy Spirit, but that changed when they received the Spirit of God. Note also that v. 12 says that they had received the Spirit of God. 'Received' is active in voice, not passive. So, if prior to receiving the Holy Spirit, one cannot 'respond' to God's grace. How did the Corinthians receive God's Spirit? If unconditional election were true, one would expect this passage to say that they were 'given' or passively 'received' the Spirit, not that they actively 'received' the Spirit. The result of their receiving the Holy Spirit (v. 12) was that they could understand the wisdom of God, but they had to receive the Spirit first. 2) Rom. 11:2 I do not to correct a point in my previous post. The word 'foreknow' is only used twice in Paul's writings, but five times in all. Sorry! :-) It is obviously your right to not agree with my position my friend. :-) However, I would hesitate to call it an 'unwarrented imposition'. Let's look at the flow of the passage. a) Rom. 10:21 is speaking of the nation of Israel. They are described as "disobedient and obstinate people" in contrast to the Gentiles who had accepted the message. b) Rom. 11:1 immediately asks, "Did God reject His people"? Which people had just been mentioned? Israel. c) Rom. 11:1 answers Paul's question by pointing out that he himself is an Israelite. d) Rom. 11:2 refers to "His people" again. Which people? The same as mentioned in 10:21 and 11:1 - Israel. e) Rom. 11:2-6 then goes on to illustrate from Elijah's time that there was always a remnant of believers even when most had turned their backs on God. So too now, there is a remnant of grace. f) Rom. 11:7-10 then addresses the question of the status of those (the bulk of Israel) who had not obtained grace. They have been hardened and are contrasted with the elect. g) Rom. 11:11-12 then makes the case that they have been hardened that the Gentiles might be saved. h) However, Rom. 11:13-32 goes on to make the case that those who have been hardened can be grafted in again, if they do not continue in their unbelief. So, has God rejected Israel (His people whom He has foreknown)? From the context of the passage, the answer is no. So, I would not call this an 'unwarrented imposition', since the only people mentioned in the context prior to v. 2 is the nation of Israel! ;-) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |