Subject: Sola Scriptura supported by bible? |
Bible Note: You wrote: "So, if I said that you were as strong as Hercules, what does that mean? Does that mean that Hercules was a real literal person?" There is a huge difference in comparing one's attributes to a fictional creature and statements like this: "Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned" --Romans 5:12 and "For if by the transgression of the one, death reigned through the one, much more those who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ. So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men. For as through the one man's disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous." --Romans 5:17-19 Paul directly links our fallen natures to the transgression of one man, Adam Over and over he refers to Adam as a single man, tracing the results of sin to one man. Likewise, he links our justification to one man. The construction is a parallel one. One man brings death to the many. One Man brings eternal life to the many. If Adam is an allegory, then we can safely conclude that Jesus is as well. Your comparison to Hercules doesn't fit at all with Paul's arguments. And like I said before, Romans 5 makes no sense if Adam is mythical. You continued: 'It is interesting you quote John, because John says that the "word" was made flesh and dwelt among us. Have you seen any flesh Bibles lately?' Nope, sure haven't. But Jesus was not talking about Himself here. John uses the word "word" in several different ways. To say that every use of "word" can be replaced by Jesus makes verses like John 2:22, 5:24, 8:31, 8:37, 8:43, 10:35, 12:48, 14:24, 15:3, and 15:20 NONSENSICAL. Even if we look at the rest of John 17, it makes no sense to say that the Greek word "logos" is talking about Jesus (John 17:6,14,17,20). You have just clearly demonstrated very poor hermeneutics in implying that Jesus was not talking about God's message rather than God's Son. You also wrote: John 14:26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you. Are you saying then that the comforter is actually the Bible? That the Holy Ghost is actually the Bible?" Pulling arguments out of thin air now? The Comforter is the Holy Spirit. Reading comprehension again. I have never said that the Bible is the Comforter (especially since the Bible was not complete at the speaking of these words and was to be authored in part by those whom He was addressing), and you are again making yourself look foolish by claiming that I even suggested such a thing. Please go back and read my posts again to make sure... Lastly, you wrote: "I still haven't seen any scripture that speaks of the Bible. Remember when the psalms were written, the only scripture was the Torah. Just 5 books. When Paul wrote 2Timothy, there was no New Testament. So when they refer to scripture they aren't refering to the Bible, the Bible didn't exist yet." Last time I checked, the Torah and the Scriptures that Paul referred to were PART of the Bible. Are you suggesting that the Old Testament meets Paul's description of Scripture but that his apostolic writings do not? In any case, I think we can take a very short trip through the epistles and see how Paul identifies himself as being an authoritative source of truth to be followed by virtue of his claims to apostleship. Just out of curiosity, you have claimed that you let the church determine truth for you. Since you have said that you are not Roman Catholic, exactly WHICH church are you referring to as the arbiter of "your truth"? --Joe! |