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NASB | 1 John 3:24 The one who keeps His commandments abides in Him, and He in him. We know by this that He abides in us, by the Spirit whom He has given us. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 John 3:24 The one who habitually keeps His commandments [obeying His word and following His precepts, abides and] remains in Him, and He in him. By this we know and have the proof that He [really] abides in us, by the Spirit whom He has given us [as a gift]. |
Subject: revpete79, When did he speak in tongues? |
Bible Note: I'm confused are you trying to say that paul never spoke in tongues after being filled with the Holy Spirit. The evidence already stated would say other wise. The Bible does not give blow by blow accounts of peoples lives, it does not share with us when they went to the bathroom does that mean that they didn't. No, it's sharing highlights of their lives, that which it is important for us to know. Paul spoke in tongues and it's accurate to surmise that it began when he was baptized in the Holy Spirit because it was a common sighn among new testimat believers who were filled with the Holy Spirit. Chapter 13 has to do with a prophecy concerning the call that God was placing on his life to be a missionary to the gentiles. Chapters 22 and 26 are recountings of his salvation experience, not his being filled with the Holy Spirit. Check out Act 10:47-48 The gentiles had received the Holy Spirit just as the Jews had and peter ordered that they then be batized in water as well, again no mention that they spoke in tongues. But in chapter 11 as he defends his acceptance and batism of gentiles Acts 11:15-17 What was it that told Peter that they had been filled with the Holy Spirit if it was not that they spoke in tongues just as the jews had back in Acts 2? Also look at Acts 19:6 The Spirit came upon them and they spoke in tongues. |