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NASB | 1 Corinthians 3:15 If any man's work is burned up, he will suffer loss; but he himself will be saved, yet so as through fire. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Corinthians 3:15 But if any person's work is burned up [by the test], he will suffer the loss [of his reward]; yet he himself will be saved, but only as [one who has barely escaped] through fire. [Job 23:10] |
Subject: Why do they prey for the deads salvation |
Bible Note: Regarding your statement that "removing them (the Apocrypha) was a sin:" I would say that if they were never even added no sin was committed. Considering their source, adding them, however, WAS and is a sin (Proverbs 30:5-6, Matthew 15:7-9, 1 Timothy 6:3-5, Revelation 22:18). I know, you had a fever; but it bugs me when people use scripture to make a point that the scripture they are quoting doesn’t make. Taking them 1 at a time. Proverbs 30:5-6 This is speaking about the Torah, or the first 5 books of the Bible. Some might argue (wrongly) that this statement also refers to prophetic words spoken by God to prophets after Moses but before Solomon. Then others have the strange idea to apply this to post Solomon times. The statement can not apply to post Solomon for several reasons the most important being that if it did, then all post Solomon books would be non-Biblical (“do not add to his words”). (The words: “Every word of God proofs true” is universal of course.) Matt 15:7-9: This statement is clearly speaking about the Oral Torah (Law). Here Jesus is stating that these so called Oral Laws were not from the Torah as the teachers of the Torah taught, but actually from men. Jesus spent much of His time teaching the correct interpretation of the Torah and the rest of the Hebrew Scriptures. Again, these can not make your point about the Apocrypha books which were before Jesus time. He isn’t even speaking of written texts, but of oral laws. 1 Timothy 6:3-4: This one is obviously not a refutation of the Apocrypha books. Rev 22:18-19: Here we have two things: 1) is this statement about the book of Revelation? or the whole Bible? If just Revelation, then why is the word translated into English as “book” and not “letter?”; if he means whole Bible, then why does he mention this in a letter to the churches. I assume he wasn’t attaching the whole Bible to the letter. The best understanding is to say the words apply to the book or letter of Revelation. However; other Bible passages make it clear that God’s Word isn’t to be changed (texts that usually refer to the Torah (first 5 books) but can be extrapolated to the whole accepted Bible, but still doesn’t answer the Apocrypha question.) 2) This text was written WAY after the Apocrypha, so even if it refers to the whole Bible, the Apocrypha was written before, not after John’s letter. There is no way one can use scripture to disprove or prove the Apocrypha EXCEPT when the books in the Apocrypha contradict accepted scripture, which many do. I am not a scholar of the Apocrypha, but I do know that many books add to our understanding of the Jews and the times. They were known by the apostles and Jesus and the general public. The Jews celebrated, the holiday instituted in Maccabees (Festival of Lights or Hanukah) which Jesus also celebrated and called Himself the Light of the World during the festival. All this and still I agree that the Apocrypha are not to be accepted as authoritative God given scripture. Studying for a mid-term? Seems to me after reading your many posts you ought to be giving the mid-term. God Bless MJH |