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NASB | John 4:14 but whoever drinks of the water that I will give him shall never thirst; but the water that I will give him will become in him a well of water springing up to eternal life." |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | John 4:14 "But whoever drinks the water that I give him will never be thirsty again. But the water that I give him will become in him a spring of water [satisfying his thirst for God] welling up [continually flowing, bubbling within him] to eternal life." |
Bible Question:
Greetings AO! Where exactly does Scripture state that the Apostles and the family of Cornelius were exceptions to the rule? I have had this discussion many times with many different proponents of baptismal regeneration. The end result is always the same - Acts 10 is an exception to the rule. Even though, Scripture never makes such a statement. Allow me to illustrate why this position simply doesn't work. Proponents have baptismal regeneration usually rely upon a particular intepretation of Acts 2:38 for one defense of their position. This intepretation says that two things are required for salvation (the 'gift of the Holy Spirit' being synonomous with salvation): 1) repentance, and 2) baptism. Yet, in Acts 10:45, we are told that the 'gift of the Holy Spirit' was received prior to water baptism. Therefore, one can only conclude that this particular intepretation of Acts 2:38 is in error. To read my view on this verse, simply search the archives, but the short version is this: There is only one condition for salvation in Acts 2:38, that being repentance. The phrase, 'be baptized' is an appositional phrase added to the sentence to describe what one does afterwards. This is evidenced by the grammatical change in form in the Greek text. But, I wander! :-) Back to your point, where does Scripture teach that God will make exceptions to your understanding of Acts 2:38. Is baptism required or not? Is is only required for some or all? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
Bible Answer: Tim, At the day of Pentecost, did the Apostles understand the gospel before they received the HS? In Acts chapter 1 were they not asking Jesus when He would restore the Kingdom to the Jews? They obviously had a very imperfect understanding UNTIL they received the HS. Then Peter immediately began to preach the gospel. Why did this happen, do you suppose? Did not the HS bring understanding of God's master plan that they before lacked (such as the command for water baptism)? Jumping ahead to the first Gentile conversion in Acts 10, God gives us the same pattern. First understanding, then obedience. Acts 10 tells us that this confirmed to the Apostles that the gospel was for both Jews and Gentiles. God did not want to vary the initial pattern, because it was instrumental in the Apostle’s understanding of God’s impartial nature. Acts 10 did not say that this pattern was to ever again happen. The Apostles knew that and responded accordingly. How? By preaching the proper steps to conversion. Not only Acts 2:38, but many other verses throughout, as I know you are aware. That is why incident after incident of conversion always includes water baptism. Paul mentioned it; Luke mentioned it; Peter mentioned it. Did these men mention it because it seemed like a good idea or because they were directed to write it by the HS? If by the HS, it follows that this is a command of God. John 14:15 15"If you love Me, you will keep My commandments. NAS AO |