Subject: define speaking in tongues. |
Bible Note: In reference to your use of 1 Cor 13:11... why then does Paul say in 1 Cor 14:18 that "I thank my God I speak with tongues more than you all?" Obviously then he still spoke in tongues at the time of his writing, so speaking in tongues would not be regarded by him as "speaking as a child". Understand that I am not taking the verse out of context, because I know that his message was to convey that in the church it is better to speak for people to understand than in a tongue that people will not understand; however, it does give evidence that Paul continued to speak in tongues. Just a though- God bless, Derek |