1 Corinthians

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Bible Question (short): Let your women keep silent?

Question (full): 1Co 14:34 - Show Context
"Let your women keep silent in the churches, for they are not permitted to speak; but they are to be submissive, as the law also says."

I have heard the argument that Paul only meant this for the church at Corinth, but in the previous verse he talks "all" the churches of of the saints. (1 Cor 14:33 "for God is not a God of confusion but of peace, as in all the churches of the saints."

The most logical interpretation, therefore, of the following verse, when he continues to refer to "churches" (note the plural) is "all the churches of the saints"...not just the churches of Corinth or Galatia or isolated places.

How then, can we interpret the passage as not applying to all Christian churches? Is this not simply a rationalization to avoid the fact that it is no longer politically correct to subjugate women (in or out of the church)? How can we ignore the teaching of the New Testament simply because it is not politically correct in our age? Can those who claim it was only meant for the women at the particular church to whom he was writing support this with evidence to that supposition? If this position is taken with regard to this issue, how can we ever know whether anything Paul said was universally true or only intended for application to the particular church to whom he was writing?

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