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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Adam and Eve Perfect or Flawed | 1 Tim 2:11 | azurelaw | 208143 | ||
Dear Steve, Hmmm...I understand your point. Thanks for that. Then I don't understand why it appears with the difference between the 2 passages recorded. If it were the case in the books of Gospel, slight difference can be understood because of different authors' purpose of emphasis. Since, Genesis is written by Moses not any other person, it should be much in harmony. In addition, why did Paul make such comment in reference to Eve in 1 Tim 2:11-14? Your further enlightenment is appreciated. Shalom Azure |
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2 | Adam and Eve Perfect or Flawed | 1 Tim 2:11 | humbledbyhisgrace | 208149 | ||
Azure, Given the text, it would seem to me that looking back to the written command of God to Adam in Genesis 2:16-17 and comparing it to what Eve said in Genesis 3:3 we assume that Eve has lied, misquoted, twisted the word etc, etc... I've even reasoned this myself in the past :-) But the text of Genesis 3:3 as I understand seems to prevent such reasoning based on the fact Eve said "God has said". I'm not seeing a harmony issue. I think perhaps it may appear that way because we compare the written account of God to Adam and the written account of Eve to the serpent. I don't deny the difference in what Eve has said. But considering all the text, are we not making assumptions of what Eve said by comparing the two passages? For me, I can't get past the words "God has said" and that she said this before the transgression. She did not say Adam had told her, she said "God has said". So, although I agree there is no written account of God speaking this, the written account is that "God has said" and it comes before the transgression as I understand the transgression is found in v3:6. If indeed she lied, then how do we account for the fallen nature before the transgression (v3:6)? :-) In regards to 1 Timothy 2:11-14 I'm not sure of your point or thoughts on this passage. However, in regards to what we are discussing, I think verse 14 is key. She "fell into transgression". If she was in error regarding what she said in Genesis 3:3 would that not then be the point in which she fell into transgression? Or is the proper understanding that she fell into transgression when "she took from its fruit and ate" (Genesis 3:6)? I've probably repeated myself in trying to explain my understand of this but hopefully you can see how I'm understanding it! Your thoughts? Steve |
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3 | Adam and Eve Perfect or Flawed | 1 Tim 2:11 | azurelaw | 208179 | ||
Dear Steve, My thoughts? Hope it maybe sharpened and blessed through this dicussion :-) I think you might have noticed that my preceding posts on the thread rejected the idea that Eve lied. But "misquoted" (as you say) could happen and this, when based on the scripture written, I agree it my assumption. For I see from the flow of the scripture Gen 2:15-22, it seems to me much of Eve's knowledge (including God's command to Adam) is second-handed (i.e. through Adam), except that she knows God in the first place in person (Gen 2:22). So, am I reasonable to think that Eve's knowledge is to a certain extent inferior to Adam's? She is made as a helper to Adam, who needs to teach her everything for his fulfilling the duty given in Gen 2:15. Since: scripture does not say God gave the command to Eve again directly, it is very likely that she got it second-handed. The way she expressed the command differently does not render that she lied as I have pointed out earlier in my post 208127. For the phrase "God has said" (Gen 3:3), Eve was responding to the serpent's tricky question "Indeed, has God said..." (Gen 3:1). Since she knows there is a sovereign God at the first place, she "could probably" know about the command second-handed and scripture does not record a direct command to her, I still don't feel it strong enough to consider God gave her the command directly but just Eve was responding to the serpent in a misleading way innocently. Did I make myself clear or am I just muddying the water? I have to admit that the above looks pretty much on speculation. However, scriptures seem to leave so much blank there that I am tempted to use my fallibel logic for the course. I am open to correction :-) Shalom Azure P.S. My use of 1 Tim 2:11-14 is in concern of Eve's less submissiveness as demonstrated in her expressing the command her own way (my post 208127) thus causing her fall into transgression. |
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4 | Adam and Eve Perfect or Flawed | 1 Tim 2:11 | Lionstrong | 208185 | ||
Azure, Did you mean to used the word "misleading"? Are you saying that Eve was trying to mislead Satan? |
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5 | Adam and Eve Perfect or Flawed | 1 Tim 2:11 | azurelaw | 208186 | ||
Dear Lionstrong, No, the other way round : the serpent's misleading question pose onto Eve. She responded in a misled way. I apologzie for the misusage of word (blushed!) Shalom Azure |
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