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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why do they prey for the deads salvation | 1 Cor 3:15 | flinkywood | 143420 | ||
Kalos, I understand that Jesus and the apostles quoted widely from the Septuagint and that Paul also refered to aprocryphal books in his letters. This certainly legitmates these book, don't you agree? In light of this, and despite the decidedly non-Christian council of Jamnia proscribing certain books of the Septuagint as non-canonical, despite Jerome's early doubts (as Luther doubted James, Jude and Revelation), why were the apocrypha removed after so many centuries? Colin |
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2 | Why do they prey for the deads salvation | 1 Cor 3:15 | Morant61 | 143427 | ||
Greetings Colin! This is an extremely tricky question. The earliest complete manuscript that we have of the LXX with the Aprocryphal books dates from the 4th century. So, we simply don't know if they were included in the LXX at the time of Christ or not. Further, none of the copies agree with one another about which books should be included. Some of them list books that no one considers canonical. Also, the early church fathers were split on the issue. Some of them considered some of the works to be canonical and some of them considered none of the works to be canonical. To me, this last point is decisive. One of the tests of canonicity was widespread acceptance by the church (almost universal). You mentioned that Paul apparently cited from some aprocryphal books. Yet, Paul also quoted Greek poets! :-) Simply citing something doesn't make a work Scripture. After all, in 'fools' are quoted in Scripture! ;-) The best approach seems to be to reject them as Scripture but to respect them as important historical works. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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