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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why do they prey for the deads salvation | 1 Cor 3:15 | EdB | 143366 | ||
The point I was making was the books the Catholic church which includes what we call the Apocrypha were actually included in the Septuagint which was produced 200 years before Christ. Certainly not merely in answer to the reformation which didn't occur until 1700 years later. However the Reformation did open the can of worms once again incidently that can of worms was never really closed as the Apocryphia was discussed in nearly every generation of the church age. EdB |
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2 | Why do they prey for the deads salvation | 1 Cor 3:15 | kalos | 143373 | ||
'The Jewish Canon' 'F. F. Bruce states there is no evidence that the Jews (neither Hebrew nor Greek speaking) ever accepted a wider canon than the twenty-two books of the Hebrew OT. He argues that when the Christian community took over the Greek OT they added the Apocrypha to it and "gave some measure of scriptural status to them also." 'Gleason Archer makes the point that other Jewish translations of the OT did not include the Apocryphal books. The Targums, the Aramaic translation of the OT, did not include them; neither did the earliest versions of the Syriac translation called the Peshitta. Only one Jewish translation, the Greek (Septuagint), and those translations later derived from it (the Italia, the Coptic, Ethiopic, and later Syriac) contained the Apocrypha. 'Even the respected Greek Jewish scholar Philo of Alexandria never quotes from the Apocrypha. One would think that if the Greek Jews had accepted the additional books, they would have used them as part of the canon. Josephus, who used the Septuagint and made references to 1 Esdras and 1 Maccabees writing about 90 A.D. states that the canon was closed in the time of Artaxerxes I whose reign ended in 423 B.C. It is also important to note that Aquila's Greek version of the OT made about 128 A.D., which was adopted by the Alexandrian Jews, did not include the Apocrypha. ____________________ From "The Old Testament Apocrypha Controversy" by Don Closson To read the entire article go to:(http://www.probe.org/docs/apocrypha.html) |
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3 | Why do they prey for the deads salvation | 1 Cor 3:15 | EdB | 143374 | ||
Doc You argue in circles. The Septuagint was the OT basis of the Christian Bible and it contained the Apocrypha. Therefore the Apocrypha was part of the Bible before the Reformation. Was it considered inspired? Not by all, many argued for and against it but the fact remains it was the subject of debate long before the Reformation and long after. It wasn't until the 1800's when it was finally decided to remove it from the KJV. In other words the Reformation had little or no effect on the Apocrypha or its usage. That is all I'm saying. It seems the Reformation takes credit for nearly everything that happens and avoids the one thing that it did accomplish that being the splitting of the church. EdB EdB |
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