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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Word or word? | Luke 8:15 | CDBJ | 111905 | ||
How do you suppose we could get around this verse? 1 Cor. 2:16 For who hath known the mind of the Lord, that he may instruct him? But we have the mind of Christ. I think that the Word of God and the word of God is the same thing because it is God’s thinking or thought. Koine Greek didn’t have capitals or diacritical marks they used syntax to get the thought across. The Word of God doesn’t have to be written down some place for it to be the Word of God does it; if it did then John 1:1 wouldn’t be correct? God didn’t even have to speak for the LOGOS it to be His Word, it was His thinking, it is God. CDBJ |
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2 | Word or word? | Luke 8:15 | Ray | 111913 | ||
Hi CDBJ, I am sorry that you think that the Word of God and the word of God is the same thing. You don't think that we have the Mind of Christ, do you? The other thought is that God is not an "it". 1) We need to know the difference between a word and the Word. There is a difference between a man and the Man. There is a difference between "he" and "He". 1 Cor. 2:16, NASB, has the first phrase in all capitals to show that it is a quote from Isaiah 40:13. But let me copy it so that we can see the capitalization of pronouns and can see the difference between "he" and "Him". 1 Cor 2:16, "For who has known the mind of the Lord, that he should instruct Him? But we have the mind of Christ." From the heart, Ray |
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3 | Word or word? | Luke 8:15 | CDBJ | 111927 | ||
Hello Ray, With ref. to the following. 1 Cor. 2:16 For who hath known the mind of the Lord, that he may instruct him? But we have the mind of Christ. I believe that this is talking about Bible doctrine, or written Word. CDBJ |
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