Results 1 - 6 of 6
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Word or word? | Luke 8:15 | Ray | 111866 | ||
It is said that Jesus and the Word are synonymous. I would agree if one is talking about the Jesus and the Son. The problem comes when we capitalize the Word of God, the Holy Bible. Then we have a misunderstanding between the Word, Jesus, and the word of God, the Bible. In the verse for this thread we can see the problem by comparing the NASB with the Amplified version. Question: For Luke 8:11 is the parable talking about the Scriptures or about the Son of God? Luke 8:11, "Now the parable is this: the seed is the word of God." From the heart, Ray |
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2 | Word or word? | Luke 8:15 | CDBJ | 111870 | ||
Are you trying to infer that Jesus is not the Word of God? I am saying that Jesus is in fact the Word of God incarnate, is that what you are disputing? CDBJ |
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3 | Word or word? | Luke 8:15 | Ray | 111887 | ||
Hi CDBJ, I am not disputing anything, but simply offering a question of capitalization. The answer will determine how one interprets and/or translates the passage. I agree with John 1:1, "In the beginning was the Word" not word. [Although, the word was spoken in the beginning and there was light]. I agree with John 1:2 in that it reads "He was in the beginning with God." I disagree with "the same" in the King James. I disagree with the marginal note in the NASB where it says, [Lit. This one], instead of "This One". Again, I affirm that He was in the beginning with God. Were the Scriptures present in the beginning? They could very well be, but they weren't written down by God in the beginning. Did God come down in the flesh? Yes He did. This Word became flesh. But the word of God, the Scriptures, is not flesh and does not take the place of the incarnate Word. The word of God, [the Scriptures] is not the Word or the Deity. So, I would say that Jesus is the word of God incarnate; the Word was God. That is the idea of "logos", is it not? But one must know and confess that He came in the flesh and was not just a word or words. So again, there must be an understanding that there is a difference between "the word" and "the Word". From the heart, Ray |
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4 | Word or word? | Luke 8:15 | CDBJ | 111905 | ||
How do you suppose we could get around this verse? 1 Cor. 2:16 For who hath known the mind of the Lord, that he may instruct him? But we have the mind of Christ. I think that the Word of God and the word of God is the same thing because it is God’s thinking or thought. Koine Greek didn’t have capitals or diacritical marks they used syntax to get the thought across. The Word of God doesn’t have to be written down some place for it to be the Word of God does it; if it did then John 1:1 wouldn’t be correct? God didn’t even have to speak for the LOGOS it to be His Word, it was His thinking, it is God. CDBJ |
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5 | Word or word? | Luke 8:15 | Ray | 111913 | ||
Hi CDBJ, I am sorry that you think that the Word of God and the word of God is the same thing. You don't think that we have the Mind of Christ, do you? The other thought is that God is not an "it". 1) We need to know the difference between a word and the Word. There is a difference between a man and the Man. There is a difference between "he" and "He". 1 Cor. 2:16, NASB, has the first phrase in all capitals to show that it is a quote from Isaiah 40:13. But let me copy it so that we can see the capitalization of pronouns and can see the difference between "he" and "Him". 1 Cor 2:16, "For who has known the mind of the Lord, that he should instruct Him? But we have the mind of Christ." From the heart, Ray |
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6 | Word or word? | Luke 8:15 | CDBJ | 111927 | ||
Hello Ray, With ref. to the following. 1 Cor. 2:16 For who hath known the mind of the Lord, that he may instruct him? But we have the mind of Christ. I believe that this is talking about Bible doctrine, or written Word. CDBJ |
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