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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why was his heart hardened? | Ex 4:21 | mark d seyler | 163748 | ||
Hi Edwin, My difficulty with that view is that the way the Bible states it, God hardened Pharaoh's heart, and it is God's choice for Pharaoh's heart to be hardened. According to you, it is Pharaoh who is solely responsible for his heart being hardened. I understand that Pharaoh hardened his heart against the LORD, but nonetheless, it was God Who confirmed, strengthed, the hardness of Pharaoh's heart. Your view would have us believe that God hardened Pharaoh's heart through the agency of Pharaoh's free will, which places the sovereign will of God subservient to the will of Pharaoh, and that just doesn't work. The Bible clearly states that God hardened Pharaoh's heart, and that it was God's intent to harden Pharaoh's heart. I hope this is clear. Love in Christ, Mark |
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2 | Why was his heart hardened? | Ex 4:21 | Morant61 | 163753 | ||
Greetings Mark! One of the difficulties with taking dogmatic positions on the issue of hardening is that Scripture explicitly states both that God hardened Pharoah's heart and that Pharoah hardened his own heart. It also simply records that Pharoah's heart became hard with reference to how. Here are examples of all three: 1) God hardened: Ex. 9:12, 10:1, 10:20, 10:27, 11:10, and Ex. 14:8. 2) Pharoah hardened: Ex. 8:15, 8:32, and 9:34. 3) Simply states that his heart was hardened: Ex. 7:13, 7:22, 8:19, and 9:35. If would be leary of any position that destorys either truth, since Scripture clearly states that God hardened his heart and that Pharoah hardened his heart. The one thing that I can say with certainty is that even when God hardens there is a redemptive purpose. Consider Rom. 11:7 - "What then? What Israel sought so earnestly it did not obtain, but the elect did. The others were hardened," Yet, v. 11 makes it clear that this hardening was not permenant. V. 25 explains that the hardening of Israel was so that the Gentiles might be saved. And, of course, v. 32 demonstrates God ultimate purpose in hardening. I hope this adds to the dicussion my friend! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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3 | Why was his heart hardened? | Ex 4:21 | mark d seyler | 163758 | ||
Hi Tim, Excellent points, my brother! One thing you bring to my mind, that I think I've always assumed the answer, but I realize that I don't know, is if Pharaoh's heart might have softened between judgments, in which times he could have turned had he been inclined. I don't know. I agree fully with you that we cannot embrace a position that does not acknowledge the truth of both sides. I find this same to be true in any discussion of free-will/divine election. Both are clearly taught, and yet I do not understand how both can simultaneously be!! I do not believe we will know the answer to that riddle this side of eternity. (should anyone want to try, email me at markdseyler@yahoo.com - that is not for the forum ;-) I appreciate that you brought out the point that this is redemptive in nature. I think many of us tend to forget that. Thank you for your thoughts! Love in Christ, Mark |
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4 | Why was his heart hardened? | Ex 4:21 | Morant61 | 163766 | ||
Greetings Mark! Thanks for your posts my friend! I agree! I doubt that any of us will be able to fully explain this question until we get to ask Him face to face! :) Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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