Results 1 - 8 of 8
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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 113860 | ||
Looking for more information................................. Hi Jcsav, So you are agreeing with almost everyone that the Holy Spirit operates in people's lives differently in the Old Testament than it does now. My first question for you is "Why?" You said that in the Old Testament the Holy Spirit moved in people's lives to enable them to perform a service or accomplish God's plan. Doesn't the Holy Spirit still work in our lives to enable us to serve God and accomplish His plan? Your second point was that the Holy Spirit could not operate in His present method until Jesus's death on the cross. My two questions there would be "Why" and "Why so long"? Firstly, why did Jesus have to die for the Holy Spirit to operate in this expanded way? Secondly, if Jesus had to die first, then why wait so long to send Jesus? |
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2 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | jcsav | 113962 | ||
Sir Pent Sorry for the delay. I could spend hours on this, but the Scripture that I think may shed light on your two questions is Galatians 4:1-8. See if this helps. Paul do a great job in explaining this. Try the Amplified. Also, keep in mind that God do not see time as we do. |
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3 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 113976 | ||
I need clarification................................ Hi Casiv, Thanks for the scripture referrance. I looked at that passage, and I want to make sure that I understand what you wanted me to learn from it. This is what I assume the passage is saying. God sent the Holy Spirit "into our hearts" because we were sons (Gal 4:6). We were sons because we were redeemed and adopted (Gal 4:5). We were redeemed and adopted through God sending His Son Jesus (Gal 4:4). Is this interpretation along the lines of what you were thinking? |
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4 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | jcsav | 114089 | ||
Paul is speaking to the Jews not the Gentiles. The Gentiles were not called "sons". Neither was we (Gentiles) under the "Law". Read it many times with God being the Father and the Jews being the "sons". See how it makes sense that If God had come early, it would not have made sense, because they would not have been mature enough. It is like giving a six year old, a car, even thought he owns it, it does not mean he should have it. | ||||||
5 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 114094 | ||
Disagreement............................................ Hi Jcsav, I want to thank you again for pointing me to the Galations 4 passage. It has been helpful for my thinking and also assisted coming to consensus with EdB on this issue. However, I think that I disagree with your interpretation of the passage. You seem to be saying that the passage is comparing Jews and Gentiles. I think that instead he is comparing God's people in the Old and New Testament. In the Old Testament, God's people were the Jews and they were under bondage to the law (Gal 4:1-3). Then the critical change happened when Jesus came (Gal 4:4) and God's people were all those who believed, whether Jew or Gentile. Furthermore, the relationship of God to His people changed from a master/servant relationship to a father/son relationship (Gal 4:5-7). What do you think? |
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6 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | jcsav | 114127 | ||
Though your statement have some correctness to it. I am trying to understand why you don't understand Paul fully. You seem to understand that in God, there is neither Jew or Gentile. But, do you realize that in the Church then (the Galatian Church, which was mostly Jews) and the Church today (The True Church) that there are both Jews and Gentiles? | ||||||
7 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | Sir Pent | 114129 | ||
Agreement................................................... Hi again Jcsav, I agree that in God there is neither Jew or Gentile. I also agree that as humans there is still a definition of "Jew" and "Gentile". I also agree that the Church today has some people who would be classified as "Jews" and others who would be classified as "Gentiles". For instance, my wife has some Jewish ancestry, and I do not think that I have any myself. And we are both believers and a part of the Church today :) |
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8 | Why did God wait to send the Holy Spirit | Joel 2:28 | jcsav | 114149 | ||
Very Good. You understand better than I thought. So the Jews that believe is the remnant that is spoken of in Romans 11:5. This is true today as well. That is who Paul was speaking to. Can you include the Gentiles? In parts of it, maybe. But that is not who Paul was speaking to. | ||||||