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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80595 | ||
Tim, Actually, I feel the reasons for your argument irrelevant. Please don’t take that as ugly as it might sound, I know you know your Greek. On the other hand, I feel Jesus was speaking Hebrew and merely spoke a common Hebrew idiom such as at Zech. 9:12; Deut. 4:26, 39, and 40. Additionally, I have compiled pages of research on this verse which proves to me that the comma should be placed after “shmeron”. Just one more example since I have the room here is that one of the best Greek texts, namely Codex B or Vaticanus (Vatican 1209) of the fourth century CE, which is one of the few Greek texts that actually contains punctuation, has the comma following the Greek “shmeron”. I wonder who was behind this textual difference in translation? Truthfinder |
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2 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Morant61 | 80623 | ||
Greetings Truthfinder! I would respectfully disagree my friend. It is an assumption that Jesus was speaking Hebrew. He may have or may not have. However, the inspired text is in Greek. Therefore, we have to deal with the Greek text, not what one might think Jesus really said. In the Greek text, 'lego' is always followed by the content of what is said, or a direct object (to you), or a helping word like 'hoti', and then the content of what is said. To make you case, you would have to provide examples from the New Testament where this is not the case. I can provide examples of what I am saying my friend. Well, I have to go to work now! :-( Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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