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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80595 | ||
Tim, Actually, I feel the reasons for your argument irrelevant. Please don’t take that as ugly as it might sound, I know you know your Greek. On the other hand, I feel Jesus was speaking Hebrew and merely spoke a common Hebrew idiom such as at Zech. 9:12; Deut. 4:26, 39, and 40. Additionally, I have compiled pages of research on this verse which proves to me that the comma should be placed after “shmeron”. Just one more example since I have the room here is that one of the best Greek texts, namely Codex B or Vaticanus (Vatican 1209) of the fourth century CE, which is one of the few Greek texts that actually contains punctuation, has the comma following the Greek “shmeron”. I wonder who was behind this textual difference in translation? Truthfinder |
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2 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Radioman2 | 80604 | ||
"...Codex B or Vaticanus (Vatican 1209) of the fourth century CE, which is one of the few Greek texts that actually contains punctuation." That some copyist ADDED punctuation to a COPY of the Greek text proves what? 'If you think you're on safe theological ground because of a pet verse, better look twice. Simple prooftexting has its perils.' --(Gregory Koukl, Stand to Reason) One of the Watchtower organization's favorite tactics is to isolate a verse of Scripture from it's context (and re-translate and re-interpret it to fit their teachings) in order to proof text a particular doctrine of theirs. |
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