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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80511 | ||
Hi CDBJ I am not interested in discussing the matter as of yet but did have a question. You quoted Lk 23:43, as "And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise." Why would a comma be placed after "thee," instead of after "Today" ? You notice you would have two completely different meanings if it were placed after "today". Very interesting and I thank you for your time and effort. Truthfinder |
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2 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80562 | ||
Hi Tim, That's interesting. It is also interesting that Syc (fifth cent. C.E.)the Syriac Peshitta (Sy), S. Lee, 1826 edition, reprinted by United Bible Societies, 1979 renders this text: "Amen, I say to thee to-day that with me thou shalt be in the Garden of Eden."-F. C. Burkitt, The Curetonian Version of the Four Gospels, Vol. I, Cambridge, 1904. Also note how Professor Wilhelm Michaelis renders the verse: "Truly, already today I give you the assurance: (one day) you will be together with me in paradise." Food for thought. Truthfinder |
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3 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Morant61 | 80591 | ||
Greetings Truthfinder! You accidently posted this to yourself! :-) I listed for you the reasons why the comma is placed where it is, do you have any evidence to indicate that what I said was not correct? Can you provide any example that does not follow the pattern I noted above? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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4 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Truthfinder | 80595 | ||
Tim, Actually, I feel the reasons for your argument irrelevant. Please don’t take that as ugly as it might sound, I know you know your Greek. On the other hand, I feel Jesus was speaking Hebrew and merely spoke a common Hebrew idiom such as at Zech. 9:12; Deut. 4:26, 39, and 40. Additionally, I have compiled pages of research on this verse which proves to me that the comma should be placed after “shmeron”. Just one more example since I have the room here is that one of the best Greek texts, namely Codex B or Vaticanus (Vatican 1209) of the fourth century CE, which is one of the few Greek texts that actually contains punctuation, has the comma following the Greek “shmeron”. I wonder who was behind this textual difference in translation? Truthfinder |
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5 | Did Jesus go to hell? | 1 Peter | Radioman2 | 80604 | ||
"...Codex B or Vaticanus (Vatican 1209) of the fourth century CE, which is one of the few Greek texts that actually contains punctuation." That some copyist ADDED punctuation to a COPY of the Greek text proves what? 'If you think you're on safe theological ground because of a pet verse, better look twice. Simple prooftexting has its perils.' --(Gregory Koukl, Stand to Reason) One of the Watchtower organization's favorite tactics is to isolate a verse of Scripture from it's context (and re-translate and re-interpret it to fit their teachings) in order to proof text a particular doctrine of theirs. |
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