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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | define speaking in tongues. | 1 Corinthians | havasu bill | 46105 | ||
At Pentacost, they were speaking in tongues and everyone understood them in their own tongues. Does this not mean that when I hear people "babble" in church, that is not speaking in"Tongues" because no one understands what they are saying. | ||||||
2 | define speaking in tongues. | 1 Corinthians | JohnK | 46106 | ||
Speaking in tongues is exactly what the apostles were doing. They spoke so that everybody would undestand. Also, to speak in tongues today, is one of the "signs and wonders" of satan. We know this because the Bible specifically says that speaking in tongues would cease. If Christians would take seriously, within context, all of the teaching about tongues in I Corinthians, they could not fail to see that tongues-speaking would cease. 1 Corinthians 13:8-11 8 Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away. 9 For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. 10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away. Paul writes, “Charity (love) never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, THEY SHALL FAIL; whether there be TONGUES, THEY SHALL CEASE; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away” (13:8). There will always be the need for love, therefore love will never drop off. But when the canon of Scripture is made “perfect” (or complete), there will be no further revelation from God, neither in predictive prophecy nor in divinely revealed knowledge other than prophecy. The gifts of “prophecy” and “knowledge” will be entirely unnecessary with the completion of the Scriptures. And “if any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book” (Revelation 22:18). |
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3 | define speaking in tongues. | 1 Corinthians | Burning Bush | 46139 | ||
YOU STOPPED. VERSE 10 SAYS,WHEN THAT WHICH IS COME, THEN IT WILL BE DONE AWAY. CHIRST HAS NOT COME BECAUSE WHEN HE DOES TONGUES WILL STOP. SPEAKING IN TONGUES IS TO EDIFY YOU WHILE PROPHESING IS TO EDIFY THE CHURCH. GO TO 1COR12 START READING THERE THEN FINISH DOWN THROUGH THE END OF 13: IN MARK 16:9-20 JESUS SPOKE THIS LAST WORD TO THE DISCIPLES, THOSE WHO BELIEVE , WHICH I AM ONE THAT THEY SHOULD HAVE THESE SIGNS FOLLOW THEM | ||||||
4 | define speaking in tongues. | 1 Corinthians | JohnK | 46140 | ||
Negative. Paul clearly said that tongues would cease when it is made perfect. He was talking about the gospel being made perfect by its completion. I will never accept anymore prophecy then what was already given in the bible. Don't tell me that speaking gibberish is from God. Nowhere in the bible did any of the apostle speak gibberish, when they spoke, everybody understood. Read it, and understand: 1 Corinthians 13:8-11 8 Charity never faileth: but whether there be prophecies, they shall fail; whether there be tongues, they shall cease; whether there be knowledge, it shall vanish away. 9 For we know in part, and we prophesy in part. 10 But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away. 11 When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things. The gospel is perfect and complete. Meaning, no more revelations or prophecies are to come to us. The bible is finished. Speaking in tongues was done so that the apostles could reach everyone. Read verse 11 again! 11 When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things. Why would Paul have said that? He said it in context to the fact that tongues would cease. NO NEW REVELATIONS WILL BE GIVEN TO US. WE HAVE THE BIBLE, THE COMPLETE WORD OF GOD THAT WHICH IS PERFECT. |
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5 | define speaking in tongues. | 1 Corinthians | dennis3202 | 70680 | ||
In reference to your use of 1 Cor 13:11... why then does Paul say in 1 Cor 14:18 that "I thank my God I speak with tongues more than you all?" Obviously then he still spoke in tongues at the time of his writing, so speaking in tongues would not be regarded by him as "speaking as a child". Understand that I am not taking the verse out of context, because I know that his message was to convey that in the church it is better to speak for people to understand than in a tongue that people will not understand; however, it does give evidence that Paul continued to speak in tongues. Just a though- God bless, Derek |
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