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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Do the italicized words clarify? | Bible general Archive 1 | retxar | 4623 | ||
Hi Koinekid. Did you read the scripture reference? Did you understand the question? The capitalized words we were talking about were the ones that represent deity "(example Gen. 18:3 we talked about)". You answered, "Italicized words are words that do not exist in the Greek or Hebrew text, but were added to help the text make more sense in English." Thank you, that is correct. Now get out your bible, look up the scripture, and tell me what you think about the question I asked... "Do the italicized words clarify who Jesus is, or do they take away from the very words that Jesus spoke Himself, concerning who He is?" Jesus is Lord! |
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2 | Do the italicized words clarify? | Bible general Archive 1 | koinekid | 4726 | ||
rexar, Sorry, I'm still getting used to the layout of the forum and did not see the posts that had come before. A little insight into the history of the discussion would have helped me answer more accurately. Basically, no, I do not believe that the italicized "He" takes away from Jesus' words. Take John 8:24 for example. Jesus said, "...unless you believe that I am He, you will die in your sins." In Greek the phrase I am is Ego eimi. It is basically what we would call a transitive verb in English, that is, it has to have a direct object or a predicate nominative, or something like that. In essence, the verb cannot exist without there being a noun to complete the thought. This noun can be in the text or spelled out. In this case, the translators went witht the safe interpretation, "He." They could have inserted "God", or "Messiah", but this would have required more interpretation that translation. Is this, however, an occasion where Jesus is expressing his deity once more? Maybe. Is is an important question? Sure. But I'm just glas that the deity of Christ is expressed outright in other passages, so we do not have to rely on the interpretation of these solely. Forgive me if this information has been written before, but I haven't been able to read the other posts. Also, I'd try to go into more detail, but I'm a little tired, and I've got a toothache. God bless. In Christ, koinekid "Upholding Scriptural Integrity, Accuracy, and Immutability" |
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3 | Do the italicized words clarify? | Bible general Archive 1 | retxar | 4737 | ||
Thanks Koinekid, for you input. Jesus be with you, and give you some relief with that tooth. Amen I realize the few verses I mentioned are not required to prove the deity of Jesus. However, if the added italicized words are taking anything away from the words Jesus actually said, this is not a small thing. Compare John 8:24 as you mentioned, with verse 58 in the same chapter. Both verses say "I AM" ("ego eimi" right??). If "the verb cannot exist without there being a noun to complete the thought", what happened to the noun to complete the thought in verse 58? If there actually does NOT have to be a noun added, which seems to be the case here, then verse 24 seems to be an interpretation decision, rather than a clarity decision. You seem to up on your Greek. I am not. The only Greek I know is "Greek salad" and "baklava", so don't think I know enough Greek to ask an intelligent question about it. If I knew Greek, I could probably appreciate a Greek to English bible translator more, so I realize there could be something I am missing here. I use the NKJV instead of the NASB (sorry, not a critical text fan). The NKJV (and KJV) also add an italicized “he” in the places I mentioned, so I am not trying to pick on any particular translation. The LITV and the MKJV are the only translations I know of that do not add “he”, so I suppose a Greek to English translation without adding “he” is possible, if not even correct. I can not help but think that these words were added to what Jesus said as a carry over from years past, not something to add clarity, as was the real intent of italicized words. Let me put it this way. If the KJV had translated these scriptures I AM, instead of I am (he), would the later translations have intentionally ADDED words to produce a WEAKER reading? I don’t think so. Jesus is Lord! |
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