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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | revpete79, When did he speak in tongues? | 1 John 3:24 | revpete79 | 172259 | ||
I don't know what you mean by my belief, you seam to think I believe one must be baptized in the Holy Spirit to be saved, which I do not believe. He would have spoken in tongues for the first time when He was baptized in the Holy Spirit as the other believers had in Acts 2:4 and continued to speak in tongues as a part of his devotional prayer life when he did not know what to pray for or how best to pray allowing the Holy Spirit to pray through him speaking to God. 1 Corinthians 14:2,18 and 26 tongues are among those things that must be done "for the strengthening of the church." Also verse 39 "do not forbid speaking in tongues." |
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2 | revpete79, When did he speak in tongues? | 1 John 3:24 | Searcher56 | 172263 | ||
Scripture ... Acts 9:4-6.17-22, 13:1ff, 22:6-16, 26:14-20 ... You said ... "He would have spoken in tongues for the first time when He was baptized in the Holy Spirit as the other believers" ... but none of the accounts (Acts 9:4-6.17-22, 13:1ff, 22:6-16, 26:14-20) agrees. |
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3 | revpete79, When did he speak in tongues? | 1 John 3:24 | revpete79 | 172267 | ||
I'm confused are you trying to say that paul never spoke in tongues after being filled with the Holy Spirit. The evidence already stated would say other wise. The Bible does not give blow by blow accounts of peoples lives, it does not share with us when they went to the bathroom does that mean that they didn't. No, it's sharing highlights of their lives, that which it is important for us to know. Paul spoke in tongues and it's accurate to surmise that it began when he was baptized in the Holy Spirit because it was a common sighn among new testimat believers who were filled with the Holy Spirit. Chapter 13 has to do with a prophecy concerning the call that God was placing on his life to be a missionary to the gentiles. Chapters 22 and 26 are recountings of his salvation experience, not his being filled with the Holy Spirit. Check out Act 10:47-48 The gentiles had received the Holy Spirit just as the Jews had and peter ordered that they then be batized in water as well, again no mention that they spoke in tongues. But in chapter 11 as he defends his acceptance and batism of gentiles Acts 11:15-17 What was it that told Peter that they had been filled with the Holy Spirit if it was not that they spoke in tongues just as the jews had back in Acts 2? Also look at Acts 19:6 The Spirit came upon them and they spoke in tongues. |
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4 | revpete79, When did he speak in tongues? | 1 John 3:24 | Searcher56 | 172274 | ||
I am saying he didn't speak in tongues as when he was Holy Spirit baptized - as Cornelius and Company and the Ephesian About 12, as you cited. If evryone was to speak in tongues ... all the conversion experiences would mentionit ... and it would have been emphasized in 1 Cor 12. | ||||||
5 | revpete79, When did he speak in tongues? | 1 John 3:24 | revpete79 | 172325 | ||
I guess we'll have to agree to disagree on this because my purpose is to enlighten others on another possible point of view not to argue with everyone who holds a different point of view. God Bless and I hope we get to meet in heaven some day! | ||||||