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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Why do they prey for the deads salvation | 1 Cor 3:15 | DocTrinsograce | 143368 | ||
Brother Ed, I understand. That would be true for some of the Apocryphal books, but not all of them. Nevertheless, the fact that they were included in the Septuagint does not necessarily mean that the books were canonical to the Jews. (After all, the Septuagint was only written by order of a gentile, Alexander the Great, and not without resistence.) The Jewish Council of Jamnia in 90 AD produced a canon (probably in reaction to questions brought up by Christians). This canon did not contain any of the Apocryphal books. What it does contain are all the books we usually think of as the Old Testament. In Him, Doc |
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2 | Why do they prey for the deads salvation | 1 Cor 3:15 | EdB | 143372 | ||
I'm not defending the Apocrypha I'm simply stating a fact that it was part of the Christian Bible from the beginning until the 1800's. This to me shoots down the belief that it was only included by Catholics to make the reformers mad or inspite of the Reformation. EdB |
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3 | Why do they prey for the deads salvation | 1 Cor 3:15 | DocTrinsograce | 143379 | ||
Dear Brother Ed, Oh, I see! Yes, I agree. The intent of the Council of Trent was not to "make the Reformers mad" or to spite them. No, it was the means by which the Roman church could legally and definitively deal with Protestantism and Protestants. The very act of describing historic events necessitates the distillation of salient facts and a certain degree of interpretation regarding the intentions of the people involved. When we say, for example, that "Hitler was the cause of World War Two," we are making a true statement, although it may be an oversimplification. Interpreting the intents of the Council of Trent is a much easier in that we have the decrees themselves which state their intent. The Catholic Encyclopedia boils down all the rhetoric with "Its main object was the definitive determination of the doctrines of the Church in answer to the heresies of the Protestants." The decree states that it allowed the Church to "express their detestation of and anathematize all the heresies that have been condemned by the sacred canons and general councils, and especially by this same Synod." It seems to have dealt with every single traditional practice with which the Protestants took issue. So I agree, the intent was not to make anyone angry or insult them in some way. Excuse me for my lack of clarity. In Him, Doc PS I've lost count, but did you know the phrase "let him be anathema" appears about 200 times in the decree itself? http://history.hanover.edu/texts/trent/trentall.html |
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4 | Why do they prey for the deads salvation | 1 Cor 3:15 | EdB | 143381 | ||
Doc Boy you are the master of the twist! The Catholic church was under attack by the Reformation. They came together to codify their position. Did that insult the Reformers, probably. Had the Reformers insulted Rome, probably. The fact remains the Apocrypha the one and only issue I'm addressing was in fact in every Bible before the Reformation and was in fact in most Bibles 300 years after the Reformation. I still say to make the statement the Catholics only included the Apocrypha in their Bible to irritate Rome is nonesense. Now twist that any way you like. EdB |
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