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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | I am Who I am in New Testament | John 8:24 | Morant61 | 234502 | ||
Greetings Andy! Let's address this point in more detail. First of all, could you share with us your language background? The reason I ask is because many people who have not been trained in Greek or Hebrew (or really any other language than their native language) tend to view translation as simply taking one definition and plugging it into the text anytime a certain word is used. But this doesn't work! Allow me to illustrate. Take the English word 'level'. It can be a noun referring to the horizontal condition of a surface, a tool used to ensure that a surface is level. It can refer to rank or position in a game. It can even be a verb and refer to the acting of making something level, or the attaining of a new rank. My point is that words are fluid and varying contexts and combinations affect the meaning. So, a unique translation is not necessarily a bad thing or wrong. However, a unique translation is not necessarily correct either. So, how about Ex. 3:14. Consider the evidence for this translation. 1) The most basic meaning (according to Strong's) of the verb is 'to exist' or 'to be'. It also has a lot of other meaning depending upon the context. The translation 'I am who I am' does justice to the root meaning of the verb. So, it is not a far stretch. As you mentioned in an earlier text there are some other possibilities. Some view the verbs as future, "I will be who I will be." But, the basic meaning is "I am." By the way, this is not the only place in the Old Testament where this verb is translated as "I am." It is also translated this way in Ps. 31:12, Ps. 71:7, Ps. 88:4, Ps. 102:6, and Ps. 102:7. These are just the examples I found in the KJV of the Psalms. Thus, the translation "I am" is not really far stretched at all. It holds true to the basic meaning of the verb and is actually translated in that manner several times in the Old Testament. 2) A further piece of evidence is the LXX translation itself. You contend that Ex. 3:14 was stretched to make a connection between it and John 8:58, but the Jewish scholars who translated the Hebrew for the LXX did so before Jesus ever uttered these words. They translated Ex. 3:14 as, "I am He who is". I always try to translate a definitive participle as 'He who..." Their translation differs from Ex. 3:14 in that they could have just translated it as "I am who I am", but they maintain the concept of eternal existence that is at the heart of Ex. 3:14. Clearly, they had no Christological axe to grind. It is also clear that while Jesus did not use the entire phrase 'I am who I am', He was definitely alluding to it. It is also clear from the reaction of the Jewish leaders that they understood Him to be alluding to it. After all, one does not try to kill someone for simply stating that they exist. :-) Well, I have to run now my friend! I look forward to our discussion. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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2 | is there another verse? | John 8:24 | servetus | 234525 | ||
Is there another verse that says you must believe that Jesus is God in order to be saved besides John 8:24? | ||||||
3 | is there another verse? | John 8:24 | DocTrinsograce | 234534 | ||
Hi there, servetus... The deity of Christ is all through the Scriptures. He declares it of Himself. How would you hope for the gospel to be effective for you if the Word was not true? In Him, Doc |
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4 | is there another verse? | John 8:24 | servetus | 234541 | ||
Doc, I agree with you but I was wondering if there was another verse that makes believing that Jesus is Jehovah a requirement for salvation besides John 8:24? Thanks, Servetus |
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5 | is there another verse? | John 8:24 | Morant61 | 234552 | ||
Greetings Servetus! As far as I know, there is no other verse that is stated quite the same way as John 8:24. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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