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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | Is their a good LXX translation | John 8:24 | servetus | 234547 | ||
Hi Tim, I have really looked into this because John 8:24 is a verse that I use for witnessing to people as I think it's important to believe that Jesus is Jehovah. However, I have always felt a little uncomfortable trying to get people to accept and understand that Jesus is the Son of God and God at the same time. I'm also following your other feed called "die in your sins" and might jump in from time to time as I see this feed has moved. I found a good greek Septuagint online and it seems Andy is right in that the text reads "Thus you shall say to the sons of Isreal, HO ON has sent me to you". I e-mailed my pastor and he said he "misspoke" and thought that EGO EIMI was in the place of HO ON. I have actually heard other preachers preach on this and have said that Jesus claimed the same name EGO EIMI that's in the LXX. I have thought a lot about this today and think that Andy has a great point on this as far as titles go. It convicted me that I should be researching a lot more for myself especially since I found some great websites. I hope you had a good turkey day! Servetus |
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2 | Is their a good LXX translation | John 8:24 | Morant61 | 234551 | ||
Greeting Servetus! The LXX translation is only relevant for two reasons. 1) Andy questioned whether or not 'I am' is a good translation of the Hebrew verb 'hayah'. I used the LXX to demonstrate that the first occurrence of 'hayah' in Ex. 3:14 is in fact translated by the Jews in the LXX with the Greek phrase 'ego eimi'. Thus, 'I am' is certainly a legitimate translation of 'hayah'. 2) Andy also questioned whether or not the 'I am' translation of the Hebrew word was done to make it conform with Jesus' statement in John 8:24. I brought up the LXX translation to illustrate that the Jews translated the first occurrence of the verb 'hayah' as 'ego eimi' and they certainly had no Christological axe to grind, especially since they translate the verse prior to Jesus' birth. As for titles, I pointed out in the other thread that God Himself didn't use exactly the same form of the title either. Look at Ex. 3:14-15. First God calls Himself 'I am Who I am'. Then, says that Moses should say to the Israelites that 'I am' has sent me to you. Then, He says to say to them that 'the Lord, the God of your father's has sent me to you.' So, it doesn't seem as though God was too hung up on some exact form of a title. :-) So, the important thing is not whether Jesus claimed the 'ego eimi' of the LXX (which is there too by the way). It is important that Jesus is alluding to the 'I am' of Ex. 3:14. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |
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