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Results from: Answered Bible Questions, Answers, Unanswered Bible Questions, Notes Ordered by Verse | ||||||
Results | Verse | Author | ID# | |||
1 | AO, was His John 3 not in effect? | John 4:14 | Searcher56 | 103273 | ||
AO ... I think you believe that one needs to be baptized (by water immersion) to be saved, based on previous posts and this one. Was what Jesus taught in John 3 not in effect when thief on the cross died? Searcher |
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2 | AO, was His John 3 not in effect? | John 4:14 | Aspiring Overseer | 103318 | ||
Hi Searcher, What Jesus taught in John 3:1-21 does not pertain to the Old Testament, but the New. No one of the Jews was "born again" to enter the Kingdom of God. Jesus was instructing Nicodemus of the things to come AFTER His death and resurrection. Thus water baptism prior to the start of the Christian Church was not required. AO |
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3 | AO, was His John 3 not in effect? | John 4:14 | Radioman2 | 103327 | ||
AO: You write: "What Jesus taught in John 3:1-21 does not pertain to the Old Testament..." John 3:5 born of water and the Spirit. 'Jesus referred not to literal water here but to the need for "cleansing" (e.g., Ezek. 36:24-27). When water is used figuratively in the OT, it habitually refers to renewal or spiritual cleansing, especially when used in conjunction with "spirit" (Num. 19:17-19; Ps. 51:9,10; Is. 32:15; 44:3-5; 55:1-3; Jer. 2:13; Joel 2:28,29). Thus, Jesus made reference to the spiritual washing or purification of the soul, accomplished by the Holy Spirit through the Word of God at the moment of salvation (compare Eph. 5:26; Titus 3:5), required for belonging to His kingdom.' (MacArthur Study Bible, Word Publishing, 1997) --Radioman2 |
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