Subject: is tounges a sign of holyghost |
Bible Note: Regarding your paragraph one: We are in agreement. Tongues was just not being practiced by anyone other than the Montanists. Chrysostom -- presumably appealing to Paul -- thought that it had passed away. Ed, please stop asking me to defend a bunch of dead guys. All we have is their own writings. They can't defend themselves. But I am certainly not anywhere near their level anyway. All I know is what I read. If it disagrees with your polemic its not my fault. Nor, if it agrees with my polemic can I take the credit! Regarding your paragraph two: Okay. Regarding your question, "if tongues have ceased how do we explain the fact that many hear the Word of God being preached in English in their own language and thus come to salvation through it?" If tongues still exist, this would be the only valid expression of it. In every case in Acts where tongues took place there was great evangelism. (I do not find the "unknown prayer language" or "mystery languages" in scripture.) If it is attributable to Satan, then we will see that the converts you mention will fall away, without any evidence of changed lives. Still and all, it would be great to have some documentation one way or another. With regard to the dancing, I'm a Baptist and we don't dance -- especially in church. :-) Sorry, just kidding! :-) However, metaphorically speaking, I'll dance on the side of orthodoxy especially when everything else is equal. Now, lets have done with all this dry and dusty stuff. Onward to the study of "the only sufficient, certain, and infallible rule of all saving knowledge, faith, and obedience," the Holy Scriptures. (Whose authority is not dependent "upon the testimony of any man or church [or experience], but wholly upon God (Who is truth itself), the Author thereof".) |