Bible Question:
I still don’t get what 2Peter 1:4 means. Dear ED, Sorry I wasn't able to get back to you right away. “Life” got in the way! Every commentary I read says what you (or the MacArthur Study Bible) said, but, I still don't get it. That’s why I asked this question in the first place. I recognize that the Holy Spirit dwells in the believer. But I don’t see how this passage is saying that. Perhaps you can help me process this through. It seems to me that Peter is writing to people who are already believers (vs 1). So why would Peter tell BELIEVERS that they “MIGHT” become “Partakers of the Divine nature” when they already have the Holy Spirit dwelling in them? Could the Divine nature be refering to the Fruit of the Spirit (Gal 5:22)? Verse 5 goes on to say that “For this very reason (what reason?) applying all diligence, in YOUR FAITH supply ...." Here is the verse and the way I was seeing what each of these phrases mean. The verse phrases are in quotes and my thoughts as to what they mean are in parentheses. What have I misunderstood? 2Peter 1:4 "For by these” (His divine power and the true knowledge of Him) “He has granted to US” (believers) “His precious and magnificent promises, in order that by them” (the promises to the church?) “YOU” (believers-vs 1) “MIGHT” (it doesn’t say “already have”) “become PARTAKERS OF THE DIVINE NATURE,” (??? fruit of the spirit ???) “having escaped (past tense) the corruption that is in the world by lust." 2Peter 1:5 “For this very reason” (what reason?) “applying all diligence, in YOUR FAITH supply ....” Any help would be greatly appreciated. Blessings, Pam |
Bible Answer: Greetings Pam! If I may address your point, I think that you are getting confused because of the word 'might'. There are two points to address concerning your question. First of all, the verb 'might become' is an Aorist, Subjunctive. The subjunctive mood is the mood of posibility. Secondly, the entire phrase is introduced by the word 'that'. What does this mean? Simply this, the promises were given for a reason. At the time they were given, we were not partakers of the divine nature. But, the promises were given that we might become partakers of the divine nature. So, the word 'might' does not indicate that at the time Peter wrote his letter that they were not 'yet' partakers; rather, it indicates that at the time of the giving of the promises, we were not yet partakers of the divine nature. The promises were given so that we could be! Does this make sense? Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |