Bible Question:
Truth"finder": John 1:1 "a god"???? Could you please expain this nonsensical NWT interpretation?? Thanks, Jibbs |
Bible Answer: Hi Jibbs, Yes, I would be glad to explain the translation of the Greek of John 1:1. Since the apostle John purposly refrained from using the definite article "ho" in this instance, he had to have meant something else other than "ho theos". Also the context states that the Word was with "ho theos" indicating that it(the Word) was not the one and the same as the God. If I were with Mary then it would most certainly be nonsensical to conclude that I was Mary. Notice the list of Greek scholars' translations of this verse that agree with me: Joh 1:1—“and the Word was a god (godlike; divine)” Gr.(kai the·os' en ho lo'gos) 1808 “and the word was a god” The New Testament, in An Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text, London. 1864 “and a god was the Word” The Emphatic Diaglott (J21, interlinear reading), by Benjamin Wilson, New York and London. 1935 “and the Word was divine” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed, Chicago. 1950 “and the Word was a god” New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures, Brooklyn. 1975 “and a god (or, of a divine Das Evangelium nach kind) was the Word” Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz,Göttingen, Germany. 1978 “and godlike sort was Das Evangelium nach the Logos” Johannes,by Johannes Schneider,Berlin. 1979 “and a god was the Logos” Das Evangelium nach Johannes,by Jürgen Becker, Würzburg, Germany. If you have any other questions please don't hesitate to ask. Truthfinder |