Bible Question: Why did the early(1st century)Church including Jesus and the Apostles use the Septuagint translation of the Old Testament if it contained books or portions of books that were not of God? Wasn't the Hebrew canon of the OT as we now have it not made in reaction to the early Church's use and acceptance of the Septuagint? You say "the Protestant Bible does not" but what about the original 1611 King James Version? It has the Apocrypha. The King James most people use now is an edited version from about 1759. Why would the Holy Spirit let the majority of Christians(Orthodox, Roman Catholic, Anglican)through the ages continue to use the "Apocrypha"? |
Bible Answer: If Jesus and the Apostles used the Septuagint, we can be sure the Apocrypha is NOT God’s Word, rather than think it might be. Why? Because they never taught out of it, even tho it was available. The Jews had already rejected the Apocrypha. Jesus must have agreed, because He never spoke out against the Jews rejection of it. If the Jews had been wrong in rejecting the Apocrypha, Jesus would have spoke out against the Jews rejection of God’s Word. The Holy Spirit does not allow or disallow anyone to believe the Apocrypha as inspired. Romans 8:14 says “For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, these are sons of God.” Notice we are to be “led by the Spirit”, we are not pushed. If we chose to follow false doctrine, we are going down the road we chose, not a path the Holy Spirit pushed us down. Jesus Lives! |