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NASB | Hebrews 6:4 For in the case of those who have once been enlightened and have tasted of the heavenly gift and have been made partakers of the Holy Spirit, |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Hebrews 6:4 For [it is impossible to restore to repentance] those who have once been enlightened [spiritually] and who have tasted and consciously experienced the heavenly gift and have shared in the Holy Spirit, |
Bible Question:
Joe, out of curiosity, upon what basis do you make the statement that only the civil and ceremonial laws are passed away? Paul's writings and the author of Hebrews do not divide the Law into 1) moral law 2) civil law 3) ceremonial law when speaking of the Law being made obsolete or concerning the fact that believers are not under Law. They simply state 'the Law','the letter', the ministry of death, the ministry of condemnation, 'the Law of Moses'. If they make no distinction, then why do you? What scriptures do you use to support this 'dismantling' of the Law? It appears that by breaking it up into smaller pieces, then you can be the one to decide which parts to keep and which parts to discard. James refers to 'the whole Law'. In other words, if you want to be under ANY of it, then you have to be under ALL of it. Any thoughts? In Christ, Bill Mc |
Bible Answer: Bill: Thoughts? Of course! You should know me better than that by now... :) "Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to abolish but to fulfill. For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest letter or stroke shall pass from the Law until all is accomplished. Whoever then annuls one of the least of these commandments, and teaches others to do the same, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever keeps and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven." --Matthew 5:17-19 Whoever teaches the commandments will be called great in the kingdom of heaven. What commandments is Christ speaking of? Have heaven and earth passed away yet? Then why do some try to annul God's moral commands? As far as dismantling the Law, I am supporting no such thing. God's moral requirements both are encapsulated in the decalogue, but also pre-date the law as well. His moral requirements for humanity extend back as far as the garden, long before Moses came down from Sinai. Paul even mentions this in Galatians: "What I am saying is this: the Law, which came four hundred and thirty years later, does not invalidate a covenant previously ratified by God, so as to nullify the promise. For if the inheritance is based on law, it is no longer based on a promise; but God has granted it to Abraham by means of a promise. Why the Law then? It was added because of transgressions, having been ordained through angels by the agency of a mediator, until the seed would come to whom the promise had been made." --Galatians 3:17 The covenant made with Abraham was pre-Law (in the Mosaic sense). It was not a covenant of works, but rather a covenant demonstrating God's grace. Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness. If God's moral requirements only exist in the form of the Mosaic Law, we not only have the question of those who pre-date the Law, but also those who lived afterward but were not under the Law of Moses (i.e. the Gentiles). Paul speaks to them in Romans: "For there is no partiality with God. For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified. For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them" --Romans 2:11-14 We can glean several truths from these few verses: 1. Gentiles do not have the Law (of Moses) 2. They do instinctively the things of the Law (Does this mean sacrifices? I doubt it) 3. They have the Law (or law) written on their hearts. Again, is this the system of sacrifices or feasts? It seems that when Paul talks about the Law, he is referring to different aspects of the Law depending on different circumstances. 4. All who have sinned without the Law will perish without the Law. Therefore, only the Jews were "under the Law" in the first place, in the Mosaic sense. However, we are all accountable to the moral law of God, which is seen and expressed clearly in the Law of Moses, but also is eternal. We see God expressing his covenant of works with humanity in Genesis 2:16-17, based on His perfect standard of morality. Our first parents were not under the Mosaic covenant, nor the covenant of Abraham, but still obligated to follow the moral directives of God. Why do you contend that when Christ died and rose again that the moral requirements of God, which did not begin at Sinai, ended at Calvary? Again, I am not arguing that any of us are able to keep the requirements of God's moral law. That is why God established his covenant of grace with Adam and Eve (Genesis 3:15) and later more specifically with Abraham though which all the peoples of the earth would be blessed. God's covenant of grace was fulfilled at Calvary, and all who trust in Christ are part of that covenant. However, all humanity, as descendants of Adam, are part of the covenant of works established by God, which has never been nullified. The reason I am saved is that I am in Christ, who fulfilled the covenant of works for me and all who believe. One other question that would help clear things up on your perspective for me, Bill: what can I do as a Christian to honor God in my daily life that is not expressed in the Law? If the moral law passed away with the Mosaic Law, how am I to please God without obeying the moral commands found in the Pentateuch? --Joe! |