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NASB | 2 Timothy 2:26 and they may come to their senses and escape from the snare of the devil, having been held captive by him to do his will. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 2 Timothy 2:26 and that they may come to their senses and escape from the trap of the devil, having been held captive by him to do his will. |
Bible Question: The Interlinear Parallel New Testament in Greek and English by Alfred Marshall says that the "who" (one) in the phrase, "who has taken them captive to do his will", refers back to the 'remoter antecedent' (God). What do you think? Where would Mr. Marshall get the idea that the this word (who or 'one') refers back to the "remoter" antecedent? Perhaps there is something about the Greek that would dictate this? |
Bible Answer: Greetings Aquila! I wish there was a way that we could actually type in Greek on this forum. It would make looking at questions like this easier. Either of the pronouns could refer to either Satan or God. Contextually, I think it is best to take them both as references to Satan. Here is why: The text of 2 Tim. 2:26 is referring to those who oppose Timothy in verse 25. The verse literally reads: "and they may regain their senses from the snare of the devil, having been taken captive by him unto that one's will." (My literal translation) As I mentioned earlier, there are three ways of reading this last clause. 1) All of it refers to Satan. 2) All of it refers to God. 3) The first part refers to Satan, and the second pronoun refers to God. Option 3 doesn't make a lot of sense. The only point in it's favor is the fact that two very different pronouns are used. However, this may simply be for the sake of variety and emphasis. Option 2 would make sense, except that those who opposed Timothy haven't yet repented. Therefore, could it really be said of them that "they have been take captive" by God to do His will? Option 1 seems (in my opinion) to make the best sense. It is Paul's hope that those who oppose Timothy make come to repentance and come to their senses, for they have been taken captive to do Satan's will. Thus, option 1 makes sense: a) Contextually. b) and Grammatically, since the nearest antecedent is the Devil. I would not be dogmatic about this point, but I think option 1 fits best! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |