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NASB | Colossians 3:9 Do not lie to one another, since you laid aside the old self with its evil practices, |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Colossians 3:9 Do not lie to one another, for you have stripped off the old self with its evil practices, |
Subject: is it ok to lie in certain cases |
Bible Note: Greetings Looking! I am not trying to pick on you my friend, but your post is an example of what happens when we try to apply our standards to God's Word, yet ignore what it actually says. Allow me to illustrate what I mean! You wrote: "I don't think Jesus' perfection is endangered if he did break the letter of the Law in some way (although, admittedly, it is kind of hard to imagine; probably just as hard to imagine Jesus in a wedding where the guests are getting drunk and he supplies more wine)." Heb. 4:15 says, " For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are—yet was without sin." James 2:10 - "For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles at just one point is guilty of breaking all of it." Now, according to these Scriptures, does it really matter if Jesus broke the Law or not? If Jesus had violated even one small part of the Law, He would have been guilty of breaking it all and would not have been without sin. If He was not without sin, then He could be the sacrifice for our sins. Now, you cited a couple of examples 'that came to mind' of Jesus breaking the Law. Let's look at these examples. 1) Did Jesus break the Law by touching a leper? Nowhere in Scripture is it declared a 'sin' to touch a leper. Lev. 13-14 gives directions about the examination and treatment of those who have various sin diseases. People with certain diseases were to be kept away from the general populace, unless healed, to avoid contagion. It is interesting that we would accuse Jesus of breaking the Law, even though the Law never says 'thou shalt not touch a leper'; yet, we would justify ourselves for violating the command not to lie. ;-) 2) How about a dead body? There are a couple of issues involving dead bodies. a) A person could be made ceremonially unclean by touching a dead body. However, this was not a sin issue. It was a ceremonial regulation with set procedures to follow. b) The only time that the word 'sin' is used with touching a dead body is in the case of a person who had taken a special vow. The vow was voluntary and violating it was considered a sin (see Num. 6). Jesus broke no Law by touching a dead body. 3) Finally, how about David and his eating of the bread? This question could get quite lengthy, so allow me to address it in an abbreviated manner. Even though Jesus says that it was not lawful for David to eat of the bread, it is not clear that Jesus is actually saying that David did something wrong. What I mean is this: There was no law that no one except a priest could eat of this bread. It seems to have been more of a tradition of the Jews, and Jesus may have simply meant that David violated their tradition. In conclusion, there simply isn't any Biblical support for the notion that Jesus broke the Law. Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |