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NASB | Philippians 2:6 who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Philippians 2:6 who, although He existed in the form and unchanging essence of God [as One with Him, possessing the fullness of all the divine attributes--the entire nature of deity], did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped or asserted [as if He did not already possess it, or was afraid of losing it]; |
Bible Question:
I am a believer in Christ. I believe that he is GOD!!!!! I believe that the Farther is GOD!!!! I believe the Holy Spirit is GOD!!!! I asked a question last week about Hebrews.. One of the reponses was to leave the JW alone. But my delimma is that my husband is a JW and I am in constant struggle with him. I need an explanation on a scripture in Mathews..where Jesus says the father is greater than he. My husband says if this is true how they can be equal.. Can you please give me scripture that explains this. Thanks.. and God Bless. |
Bible Answer: Greetings Noveta! You and your husband are in our prayers. The easiest way to explain Jesus' statement about the Father is to understand the incarnation of Jesus. Phil. 2:5-11 tells us that Jesus was fully God. But, verse 6 makes it clear that, during His incarnation, Jesus placed certain restriction upon Himself in that He became fully human. As the incarnate God, Jesus was now subordinate to His Father just as any man must be to the Father. So, Jesus' statement doesn't describe an eternal and core difference between Him and the Father, but a temporary condition during His incarnation. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |