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NASB | 2 Corinthians 4:4 in whose case the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelieving so that they might not see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 2 Corinthians 4:4 among them the god of this world [Satan] has blinded the minds of the unbelieving to prevent them from seeing the illuminating light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. |
Subject: 2 Cor 4:4 |
Bible Note: Greetings Xmikx! As I have said all along my friend, my point is simply this: The word 'Satan' is not used in the verse. Therefore, it is a matter of interpretation, not fact, to say that 'Satan is the god of this world'! Just as you interpret it to mean Satan, I interpret it to mean the only true God. Both are an interpretation! :-) You wrote: "Tim, I now your point about Greek not using capitalization, but each of the translations I have used from biblegateway use both little g god and BIG G God. Tim, how are you able to understand what Paul means each time he uses the word God or god? If Greek has no capitalization, then how do you know the translation you use is correct when it reads: god of this world?" There are many elements of intepretation involved in translation. Since there was no capitalization in Greek, every time we choose to capitalize a word in Greek we are 'forcing' our English standards upon the text. But, our choice can not then be used as evidence of what the orginal actually meant! :-) In the process of my interpretation, I have relied on several pieces of evidence. 1) There is no verse in Scripture where Satan is explicitly called a god. 2) The definite article is used in 2 Cor. 4:4. It is a reference to 'ho theos', not just a 'theos'. 3) Scripture is quite clear that while some things are called gods, there are in fact no other gods. 4) God is the only one spoken of as 'blinding' people in Scripture. Using this data, I interpret 2 Cor. 4:4 to be a reference to the only true God. You wrote: "These translations were made by people much smarter than I. They have done the research and study to interpret the old ancient texts that are available to the scholars doing the translation." I too have read the same manuscripts! :-) None of them say 'Satan' anywhere in the text! :-) You wrote: "Some translations/versions (New Living, New Life, Wycliffe) use either Satan or the devil in this verse to further clarify who Paul is referring to in 2 Cor 4:4. You may or may not agree with or even like these three versions of the Bible." Personally, I don't like any translation where words are added that are not in the text. You wrote: "As you all know, Paul wrote this as a letter to the church at Corinth. If you read this as one should read a letter (from the beginning) Paul first mentions Satan in 2 Cor 2:11 and he uses the word Satan for this reference. Please read 2 Cor 4:3 and then verse 4." Yes! Satan is mentioned in 2 Cor. 2:11. However, that does not mean that Satan is the subject of 2 Cor. 4:4! :-) Titus is mentioned in 2 Cor. 2:13, but that doesn't mean that he is the subject of 2 Cor. 4:4! ;-) 2 Cor. 2:5-11 deals with love and forgiveness for a man who was subjected to punishment by the church. One last point! The 'veil' of Moses certainly was used to hide God's glory, but notice the application that 2 Cor. 3 uses for this term 'veil'. In 2 Cor. 3:12-18, the 'veil' is over people's hearts and minds, not Moses' face. I would like your thoughts on the following verses. Who blinds people in Scripture: Rom. 11:7-8 says, "What then? What Israel sought so earnestly it did not obtain, but the elect did. The others were hardened, 8 as it is written: 'God gave them a spirit of stupor, eyes so that they could not see and ears so that they could not hear, to this very day.'" Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |