Prior Book | Prior Chapter | Prior Verse | Next Verse | Next Chapter | Next Book | Viewing NASB and Amplified 2015 | |
NASB | 1 Corinthians 14:22 So then tongues are for a sign, not to those who believe but to unbelievers; but prophecy is for a sign, not to unbelievers but to those who believe. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Corinthians 14:22 Therefore, [unknown] tongues are [meant] for a [supernatural] sign, not to believers but to unbelievers [who might be receptive]; while prophecy [foretelling the future, speaking a new message from God to the people] is not for unbelievers but for believers. |
Bible Question:
Thanks to everyone who has responded to my question! We tend to answer questions out of our general knowledge, rather than deal directly with the text. This particular text says "Tongues, then, are a sign not for believers but for unbelievers." Some of the responses have contradicted this (ie. tongues are for believers, or of no benefit whatsoever...) without explaining how the conclusions were arrived at. Earlier in the chapter, Paul talks about speaking mysteries in the spirit and thereby "building up themselves" (v.4). So it seems there is a place for private tongues, as an act of worship --- but that this sort of tongues should not be used in a group. In a group, we should be striving to "build up the church" (v 12). It appears tongues can function in this way if there is an interpreter (v. 5). Tongues is good, but prophecy is a more reliable way to build up the church. Do you think this is a reasonable sumation of the first half of the chapter? There is then a shift at verse 20, which leads to a statement that seems contradictory to what I just stated. Where the first part says tongues are for the believer's private use or (with an interpreter) among believers, the next verses say tongues are to benefit unbelievers, not believers. Help me out here. It seems contradictory, but I suspect I'm just not getting the whole sense of it. There are, perhaps different uses of tongues. Let's leave the events of Pentecost aside, since that seems an extraordinary blessing, beyond the normal experience of the churches. Instead, please help with this particular chapter. Yours JRM. |
Bible Answer: Greetings JRM! Many commentators have noted that 1 Cor. 14:22 and 23 seem to say the exact opposite of each other. :) Many suggestions have been made to explain this situation, including imagining a textual problem where there is no evidence. However, one suggestion that I have read that seemed like a strong possiblity is that v. 22 may be a rethorical question. Remember, there wasn't any punctuation in the original manuscripts. So, it was added later. If v. 22 is viewed as a rethorical question, then v. 22 would be the position of the Corinthians which Paul then responds to in v. 23. There is some textual evidence that v. 22 may be a rethorical question. This evidence can be found in Gal. 4:16, where a similar structure is used. I hope this helps! Your Brother in Christ, Tim Moran |