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NASB | 1 Corinthians 14:22 So then tongues are for a sign, not to those who believe but to unbelievers; but prophecy is for a sign, not to unbelievers but to those who believe. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | 1 Corinthians 14:22 Therefore, [unknown] tongues are [meant] for a [supernatural] sign, not to believers but to unbelievers [who might be receptive]; while prophecy [foretelling the future, speaking a new message from God to the people] is not for unbelievers but for believers. |
Subject: Tongues, madness or sign for unbeliever |
Bible Note: NYP: Let me make a stab at improving my clarity through a different approach. Do you know of any place in Scripture where tongue(s) is used in any sense -- except purely anatomical -- wherein the word "language" could not be substituted for "tongues" without altering the meaning? Or are there in NT Scripture two separate and distinct meanings of the word tongue(s), the one meaning ordinary human speech, i.e. a known language, and the other meaning an "unknown tongue," i.e., ecstatic vocalization? And if there are different meanings of tongue in Scripture, could you illustrate and explain the meanings by citing various scriptural passages? My aim in these posts and these questions is definitely not to put you or anyone else to the test, but to arrive at a correct definition of "tongue(s)" as Scripture uses the word. So often people on the Forum talk about 'speaking in tongues,' and I'm never quite sure what they are talking about. Are they talking about the same thing as Luke was talking about in Acts 2, or as Paul was talking about in 1 Corinthians 14, or are they talking about something altogether different from either? --Hank |