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NASB | Mark 15:34 At the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, "ELOI, ELOI, LAMA SABACHTHANI?" which is translated, "MY GOD, MY GOD, WHY HAVE YOU FORSAKEN ME?" |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Mark 15:34 And at the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, "ELOI, ELOI, LAMA SABACHTHANI?"--which is translated, "MY GOD, MY GOD, WHY HAVE YOU FORSAKEN ME?" [Ps 22:1] |
Subject: "Eloi" or "Eli"? |
Bible Note: Greetings again, Tim! He also writes, "TEXTUAL EVIDENCE Often there's room to tell which is the original language by comparing the Greek vs Hebrew/Aramaic texts and seeing if it doesn't make sense for a word/phrase/etc to be translated from the Greek to the Hebrew or vice versa. There is an abundant of such evidence for Matthew. 1.. The Greek version of Matthew contains mistakes that the Hebrew version does not. a.. The Greek Matthew 1:13 lists Avichud as the father of Elyakim, but this disagrees with the Tanakh which calls him his grandfather. The Hebrew version of Matthew does not contain this error and lists Avichud as the father of Avner and Avner as the father of Elyakim, agreeing with the Tanakh. So did God inspire Matthew to write this in Greek and make a mistake? b.. Greek Matthew chapter 1:17 says there are 14 generations from the Babylonian exile to Messiah, but only lists 13 names in the Greek (due to Avner being omitted). The Hebrew version lists all 14 names. It's as if God put this in as an "error check" for us! c.. In the Greek Matthew 23:35, Zechariah the son of Jehoidai (2 Chron. 24:20-21; b.San. 96; j.Ta'anit 69) mistakenly appears as Zechariah the son of Berechiah (Zech. 1:1). This error was not in the ancient Hebrew copy Jerome had. Jerome writes of Hebrew Matthew: "In the Gospel which the Nazarenes use, for 'Son of Barachias' I find 'of Joiada' written" d.. Another mistake in the Greek version of Matthew is in Matt 27:9 which quotes Zech. 11:12-13 but falsely credits the quote to Jeremiah. The Shem Tob Hebrew correctly attributes the quote to Zechariah, while the Aramaic (Old Syriac and Peshitta) simply attribute the quote to "the prophet." 2.. Matt 14:20 says "...and there were left over (VNSRU)" in the Hebrew. The Greek says "And they took up" which would be written as "VNSU", or same as what appears in the Hebrew version without a Resh. This would be an explainable discrepency if the Greek translators misread this word. 3.. In Matt 17:12, the greek translators seem to have misread "YQBL" (recieve) as "YSBL" (suffer). A handwritten Qof and Sammekh can be easily mistaken. 4.. In Matt 18:16, the translators seem to have misread "Witness" (Ayin Dalet) as "yet" (Ayin Resh). A Dalet and a Resh look a lot alike, so it's understandable how this mistake could have been made. 5.. In Matthew 27:33, the Greek text mispells "Galgotha". 6.. The Greek version of Matthew quotes Isa 7:14 in a way that does not agree with the standard Greek version of Isaiah (from the LXX). The LXX uses the word "lepsetai" for "shall be" while Matthew uses the Greek word "ekzie". If Matthew was originally in Greek, it should match word-for-word, but it doesn't, indicating that the Greek Matthew might have been translated from something else. So it would seem reasonable it was translated from the Hebrew version of Matthew, instead of being originally in Greek and thus quoting the Greek version of the Tanakh." Please tell me your thoughts! Blessings! Nolan |