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NASB | Matthew 18:6 but whoever causes one of these little ones who believe in Me to stumble, it would be better for him to have a heavy millstone hung around his neck, and to be drowned in the depth of the sea. |
AMPLIFIED 2015 | Matthew 18:6 but whoever causes one of these little ones who believe in Me to stumble and sin [by leading him away from My teaching], it would be better for him to have a heavy millstone [as large as one turned by a donkey] hung around his neck and to be drowned in the depth of the sea. [Mark 9:42; Luke 17:2] |
Subject: Is my assessment of them wrong? |
Bible Note: There is no definitive Biblical defination other than: Genesis 2:23 and 2:24 and 2:25. I know there is no better for two reasons: 1. This is the definition that both Christ and Paul use. 2. I am unable to find another. If this is the case, we must adhere to this definition. Paul and Christ both choose to do this very thing. My point is to the nature of the relevance of the act of intercourse. Paul expressly describes the act of intercourse between (I will be gender specific for ease of reading)a Man and a Prostitute as resulting in a marriage covenant, and that by the above definition. Now, if this is the case between a Man and a Prostitute, how much more so as that between two people who LOVE one another and desire to be married? This being the case, consider the examples given in other posts. That of Genesis 38:9, Deuteronomy 21:13, and 25:5 for example. These are examples of this very concept in application. We have no scriptural precedent for the NECESSITY of a "marriage ceremony." Now, if someone is incorrect about PRE-MARITAL SEX, lets figure out why or why not! Just because the answere to this question APPEARS obvious most certainly does not MAKE it obvious. This definition of marriage above does not make "promiscuity" or "debauchery" permissable, but neither are these words ("promiscuity" or "debauchery") define of sex between a man and a woman loving and desiring to be married. For that matter, the Greek word used, as described in other posts, is also not a definiton of two loving adults that desire to be married. Instead, the definition focuses on the act of sex in a promiscuous fashion (wether for money or just for the sake of the act). All this considered, how innacurate is it to say that a man and a woman, "engaged to be married," living together and having sex, are, in fact, "married." At least according to Biblical definition. Furthermore, I would like you to provide me with an email address, so that I can discuss the matter of the restriction of this thread with you in a more appropriate environment. thank you. |