Bible Question:
In having read the book umpteen times over the past 1/2 centry, apon my most recient re-reading of it, a thought just came to mind. Keep in mind John 1:1. “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” Now consider what Jesus states in John 14:21. "He that hath my commandments, and keepeth them, he it is that loveth me: and he that loveth me shall be loved of my Father, and I will love him, and will manifest myself to him." “And will manifest (show) myself to him.” Now... My thought is, "He has manifest Himself to me in His word." I believe, but have yet researched it, that scripture states something to this affect, elsewhere. Many take this passage literally. I firmly believe that, just like the rest of scripture, depending on the specific circumstances, this passage can be taken either way. literally or figuratively. Having no desire to get into a doctrinal discussion on the matter, I would like to ask, what passages you would provide in support, or contrast to this thought? |
Bible Answer: Dear Shythiyl, Great question! I've argued in the past that our relationship with Christ today is far deeper even than the one that the disciples enjoyed during His earthly ministry. John wrote his gospel (and at least his first epistle) to deal with the gnostic heresy. Look how often the word "know" appears in his writings. Paul was dealing with an earlier form of the same heresy in his epistle to the Colossians. There he even uses the word "epignosis" (see 1:9) -- speaking of a deep kind of knowledge. I think this question of how Christ manifests Himself -- through the Word and in our spirit -- is one that is definitely worthy of further consideration. Sorry for not giving any kind of a definitive answer... but thank you for the blessing of giving me something like this in which to delve! In Him, Doc |